Question 1 Which one of the following statements concerning the annual percentage rate is correct? The rate of interest you actually pay on a loan is called the annual percentage rate. The effective annual rate is lower than the annual percentage rate when an interest rate is compounded quarterly. The annual percentage rate considers interest on interest. The annual percentage rate equals the effective annual rate when the rate on an account is designated as simple interest. When firms advertise the annual percentage rate they are violating U.S. truth-in-lending laws.

Question

Question 1

Which one of the following statements concerning the annual percentage rate is correct?

The rate of interest you actually pay on a loan is called the annual percentage rate.

The effective annual rate is lower than the annual percentage rate when an interest rate is compounded quarterly.

The annual percentage rate considers interest on interest.

The annual percentage rate equals the effective annual rate when the rate on an account is designated as simple interest.

When firms advertise the annual percentage rate they are violating U.S. truth-in-lending laws.

Question 2

Paying off long-term debt by making installment payments is called:

funding the debt.

foreclosing on the debt.

calling the debt.

amortizing the debt.

None of these.

Question 3

An annuity stream of cash flow payments is a set of:

increasing cash flows occurring each time period forever.

level cash flows occurring each time period for a fixed length of time.

arbitrary cash flows occurring each time period for no more than 10 years.

increasing cash flows occurring each time period for a fixed length of time.

level cash flows occurring each time period forever.

Question 4

Which of the following statements concerning the effective annual rate are correct?

I. When making financial decisions, you should compare effective annual rates rather than annual percentage rates.

II. The more frequently interest is compounded, the higher the effective annual rate.

III. A quoted rate of 6% compounded continuously has a higher effective annual rate than if the rate were compounded daily.

IV. When borrowing and choosing which loan to accept, you should select the offer with the highest effective annual rate.

I, II, and III only

I, II, III, and IV

I and II only

I and IV only

II, III, and IV only

Question 5

A perpetuity differs from an annuity because:

annuity payments never cease.

perpetuity payments vary with the market rate of interest.

perpetuity payments vary with the rate of inflation.

perpetuity payments are variable while annuity payments are constant.

perpetuity payments never cease.

Question 6

An annuity stream where the payments occur forever is called a(n):

perpetuity.

annuity due.

amortization table.

indemnity.

amortized cash flow stream.

Question 7

You are comparing two annuities which offer monthly payments for ten years. Both annuities are identical with the exception of the payment dates. Annuity A pays on the first of each month while annuity B pays on the last day of each month. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning these two annuities?

Both annuities are of equal value today.

Annuity B is an annuity due.

Annuity A has a higher future value than annuity B.

Annuity B has a higher present value than annuity A.

Both annuities have the same future value as of ten years from today.

Question 8

The time value of money concept can be defined as:

None of these.

the relationship between a dollar to be received in the future and a dollar today.

the relationship between money spent versus money received.

the relationship between interest rate stated and amount paid.

the relationship between the supply and demand of money.

Question 9

The present value of future cash flows minus initial cost is called:

the future value of the project.

the net present value of the project.

the initial investment risk equivalent value.

the equivalent sum of the investment.

None of these.

Question 10

An annuity:

is a stream of payments that varies with current market interest rates.

None of these.

has no value.

is a level stream of equal payments through time.

is a debt instrument that pays no interest.

Question 11

If its yield to maturity is less than its coupon rate, a bond will sell at a _____, and increases in market interest rates will _____.

None of these

premium; decrease this premium

discount; decrease this discount

discount; increase this discount

premium; increase this premium

Question 12

The _____ premium is that portion of a nominal interest rate or bond yield that represents compensation for expected future overall price appreciation.

inflation

default risk

taxability

liquidity

interest rate risk

Question 13

One basis point is equal to:

.01%.

10%.

100%.

1.0%.

.10%.

Question 14

The yield to maturity is:

the rate that is used to determine the market price of the bond.

the expected rate to be earned if held to maturity.

All of these.

the rate that equates the price of the bond with the discounted cash flows.

equal to the current yield for bonds priced at par.

Question 15

The annual coupon of a bond divided by its face value is called the bond’s:

coupon.

coupon rate.

maturity.

face value.

yield to maturity.

Question 16

A bond with a face value of $1,000 that sells for less than $1,000 in the market is called a _____ bond.

premium

par

discount

floating rate

zero coupon

Question 17

The Fisher Effect primarily emphasizes the effects of _____ risk on an investor’s rate of return.

market

inflation

interest rate

default

maturity

Question 18

The rate of return required by investors in the market for owning a bond is called the:

yield to maturity.

maturity.

coupon rate.

face value.

coupon.

Question 19

The relationship between nominal rates, real rates, and inflation is known as the:

Miller and Modigliani theorem.

Gordon growth model.

Fisher effect.

term structure of interest rates.

interest rate risk premium.

Question 20

Aspens is preparing a bond offering with an 8% coupon rate. The bonds will be repaid in 10 years. The company plans to issue the bonds at par value and pay interest semiannually. Given this, which of the following statements are correct?

I. The initial selling price of each bond will be $1,000.

II. After the bonds have been outstanding for 1 year, you should use 9 as the number of compounding periods when calculating the market value of the bond.

III. Each interest payment per bond will be $40.

IV. The yield to maturity when the bonds are first issued is 8%.

I and II only

II and III only

II, III, and IV only

I, III, and IV only

I, II, and III only

 

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Question 1 2 / 2 pts The use of WACC to select investments is acceptable when the: NPV is positive when discounted by the WACC. correlations of all new projects are equal. risks of the projects are equal to the risk of the firm. firm is well diversified and the unsystematic risk is negligible. None of these.

Question

Question 1

2 / 2 pts

The use of WACC to select investments is acceptable when the:

NPV is positive when discounted by the WACC.

correlations of all new projects are equal.

risks of the projects are equal to the risk of the firm.

firm is well diversified and the unsystematic risk is negligible.

None of these.

Question 2

2 / 2 pts

The beta of a security provides an:

estimate of the slope of the Capital Market Line.

estimate of the slope of the Security Market Line.

None of these.

estimate of the market risk premium.

estimate of the systematic risk of the security.

Question 3

2 / 2 pts

The following are methods to estimate the market risk premium:

use the bond valuation model to estimate growth in bond prices with different costs of capital.

use historical data to estimate future risk premium and use the dividend discount model to estimate risk premium.

use the dividend discount model to estimate risk premium.

use historical data to estimate future risk premium.

use historical data to estimate future risk premium and use the bond valuation model to estimate growth in bond prices with different costs of capital.

Question 4

2 / 2 pts

If a firm has low fixed costs relative to all other firms in the same industry, a large change in sales volume (either up or down) would have:

a smaller change in EBIT for the firm versus the other firms.

no effect in any way on the firms, as volume does not affect fixed costs.

None of these.

a decreasing effect on the cyclical nature of the business.

a larger change in EBIT for the firm versus the other firms.

Question 5

2 / 2 pts

For a multi-product firm, if a project’s beta is different from that of the overall firm, then the:

CAPM can no longer be used.

project should be discounted using the overall firm’s beta.

project should be discounted at the market rate.

project should be discounted at the T-bill rate.

project should be discounted at a rate commensurate with its own beta.

Question 6

2 / 2 pts

Firms whose revenues are strongly cyclical and whose operating leverage is high are likely to have:

zero betas.

negative betas.

high betas.

None of these.

low betas.

Question 7

2 / 2 pts

The present value of cash flows is important in

None of these

multiples analysis

time series analysis

growth projections

discounted cash flow analysis

Question 8

2 / 2 pts

When using the cost of debt, the relevant number is the:

post-tax cost of debt, since dividends are tax deductible.

None of these.

pre-tax cost of debt, since it is the actual rate the firm is paying bondholders.

pre-tax cost of debt, since most corporations pay taxes at the same tax rate.

post-tax cost of debt, since interest is tax deductible.

Question 9

2 / 2 pts

The beta of a firm is more likely to be high under what two conditions?

Low cyclical business activity and low operating leverage

High cyclical business activity and low operating leverage

High cyclical business activity and high operating leverage

Low cyclical business activity and low financial leverage

None of these.

Question 10

2 / 2 pts

A firm with cyclical earnings is characterized by:

revenue patterns that vary with the business cycle.

high fixed costs.

high price per unit.

low contribution margins.

high levels of debt in its capital structure.

Question 11

2 / 2 pts

If the project beta and IRR coordinates plot above the SML the project should be:

rejected.

It is impossible to tell.

None of these.

accepted.

It will depend on the NPV.

Question 12

2 / 2 pts

The WACC is used to _______ the expected cash flows when the firm has _______.

discount; short term financing on the balance sheet

discount; debt and equity in the capital structure

increase; debt and equity in the capital structure

None of these.

decrease; short term financing on the balance sheet

Question 13

2 / 2 pts

If the CAPM is used to estimate the cost of equity capital, the expected excess market return is equal to the:

return on the stock minus the risk-free rate.

market rate of return.

beta times the risk-free rate.

difference between the return on the market and the risk-free rate.

beta times the market risk premium.

Question 14

2 / 2 pts

The weighted average cost of capital for a firm is the:

maximum rate which the firm should require on any projects it undertakes.

rate of return that the firm’s preferred stockholders should expect to earn over the long term.

overall rate which the firm must earn on its existing assets to maintain the value of its stock.

discount rate which the firm should apply to all of the projects it undertakes.

rate the firm should expect to pay on its next bond issue.

Question 15

2 / 2 pts

The beta of a firm is determined by which of the following firm characteristics?

Operating leverage

Financial leverage

Cycles in revenues

All of these.

None of these.

 

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1. The importance of intellectual property should be understood by entrepreneur even before _________. a. Hiring a manager b. Engaging an attorney c. Developing a product d. Establishing new venture

Questions:
1. The importance of intellectual property should be understood by entrepreneur even
before _________.
a. Hiring a manager
b. Engaging an attorney
c. Developing a product
d. Establishing new venture
2. Which of the following is not followed in brainstorming?
a. Criticism is done by the group members
b. The wilder idea is batter
c. Quantity of ideas is required
d. The session should be fun, with no on dominating the discussion
3. The former USSR received technology and syrup from Pepsi and provided it with
Soviet vodka and rights to distribute it in the US. This is an example of:
a. Economic development
b. Barter system
c. Balance of payment
d. International trade
4. A patent is granted for a specified amount of time because of the assumption:
a. During this time firm will cover its development costs
b. Firm will earn a sufficient profit during this period
c. To limit the monopoly of the firm
d. It will stimulate idea and development of a batter product
5. Developing a new idea through inquiry and testing is called _________.
a. Heuristics
b. Scientific method
c. Forced relationship
d. Value analysis
6. In an international perspective, which of the following decisions are not covered
under strategic planning of an entrepreneur?
a. What are unique characteristics of each market?
b. Who should be involved in marketing decisions?
c. What customer benefits are provided by the product
d. What are the company’s major strengths and weaknesses?
7. Which of the following grants the owner protection from anyone else making, using
and selling the identified innovation?
a. Utility patent
b. Design patent
c. Plant patent
d. International patent
8. The problem inventory analysis should b used primarily to:
a. Reflect a new business opportunity
b. Identify product idea for further evaluation
c. Solve unknown problems
d. Develop a list of problems
9. Selling goods to another country through a person in the entrepreneur’s home
country is known as _________.
a. Export
b. Direct export
c. Indirect export
d. Domestic sales
10. Which of the following statements is not true about trademarks?
a. A trademark could be a slogan or a particular sound
b. Some trademarks have no relationship with the product
c. The filing date for the trademark becomes the first date use of the mark
d. The entrepreneur cannot file after the mark already been in use
11. The product life cycle is included in which stage of product planning and
development process?
a. Test marketing stage
b. Product development stage
c. Commercialization stage
d. Product planning and development process is a part of product life cycle
12. Which of the following cannot be covered under the copyright protection?
a. Computer software
b. Computer hardware
c. Poems and songs
d. Models and sculpture
13. Idea of new product is tested in potential consumers to determine consumer
acceptance at _________ stage.
a. Concept
b. Product development
c. Test marketing
d. Commercialization
14. According to the governing bodies of common laws, the life of trade secret is:
a. 12 years
b. 17 years
c. 20 years
d. As long as it remains confidential
15. Which of the following is used by entrepreneurs to acquire experience in an
international market before making a major commitment?
a. Merger
b. Joint venture
c. Minority interest
d. Majority interest
16. The evaluation criteria for the new product should include all of the following
except:
a. Determination of market demand
b. Determination of the suppliers
c. Pricing and marketing policies of other competing firms
d. Product should be profitable
17. Licensing is a significant marketing strategy to:
a. Use intellectual property of others
b. Pirate others’ patents
c. Grow the business in new markets
d. Control the costs
18. Automated stock replenishment, electronic selling and processing of customers
orders and payments are examples of:
a. E-business
b. E-commerce
c. E-trading
d. E-transaction
19. The longest lasting trade agreement with the objective of liberalizing trade by
eliminating or reducing tariffs, subsidies and quotas is _________.
a. Free trade area – FTA
b. European community – EC
c. General agreement on tariffs and trade – GATT
d. The north American free trade agreement – NAFTA
20. The most important characteristic of a successful business website is
a. Speed
b. Innovation
c. Graphics
d. Products

 

 

 

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In 2003, FASB and IASB met and established four criteria for establishing revenue recognition. To recognize revenue, which of the following conditions must be present? A change in assets has occurred and can be appropriately measured. Payment for the sale must be received prior to recognizing the revenue. The product or deliverable, in the case of a service business, has been received by the customer. A promise to deliver has been established.

1. In 2003, FASB and IASB met and established four criteria for establishing revenue recognition. To recognize revenue, which of the following conditions must be present?

A change in assets has occurred and can be appropriately measured.

Payment for the sale must be received prior to recognizing the revenue.

The product or deliverable, in the case of a service business, has been received by the customer.

A promise to deliver has been established.

2. Failure to provide any care in fulfilling a duty owed to another is called

gross negligence

constructive fraud

breach of contract

negligence

3. Which of the following is a fundamental characteristic of the market system?

Unselfish behavior

Central planning by government

Government-set wages and prices

Property rights

4. The income effect indicates that

consumers should substitute among various products until the marginal utility from the last unit of each product purchased is the same

a rise in money income will cause consumers to buy smaller quantities of normal goods

when the price of a product falls, a consumer will be able to buy more of it with a specific income

when the price of a product falls, the lower price will induce the consumer to buy more of that product now that it is relatively cheaper

5. The price elasticity of demand coefficient measures

the slope of the demand curve

how far business executives can stretch their fixed costs

buyer responsiveness to price changes

the extent to which a demand curve shifts as incomes change

6. A normative statement is one that

applies only to microeconomics

is based on the law of averages

is based on value judgments

applies to macroeconomics

7. Many conflicts of interest in business contracts can be remedied ethically by which of the following?

Deception and disclosure

Camouflage and consent

Disclosure and consent

Conflicts of interest can never be remedied ethically

8. Four professional general standards and responsibilities for Certified Public Accountants are quality control and assurance, professional judgment, competence, and:

integrity

diligence

independence

knowledge

9. In 2002, Adelphia Cable filed bankruptcy when it was discovered that

excess fictitious expenses of $1 million were added to the income statement

bank debt in excess of $2.3 billion was not shown on the financial statements

assets on the financial statements were considerably undervalued

sales in excess of $72 billion were omitted from the financial statements

10. When budgets are used to measure performance, there is a danger that budgetary slack may occur. This happens when

sales budgets are set too high and cost budgets are set too low

sales budgets are set too low and cost budgets are set too high

sales budgets are set too low and cost budgets are set too low

sales budgets are set too high and cost budgets are set too high

11. ABC Company owes XYZ Enterprises $1 million for goods purchased from XYZ over a year ago. XYZ Enterprises continues to list the $1 million in their accounts receivable balance and does not record any allowance for doubtful accounts. XYZ Enterprises is failing to follow

SFAS 169

Financial Accounting Standards Board FAS 157

Financial Accounting Standards Board Statement No. 5

SFAS 101

12) The EU Privacy Directive presents problems for the United States in that

data may not be transferred to a non-EU entity unless guarantees are provided that equal security measures are in place

transferred data may not be translated into another language

high transfer charges are required to be paid by the recipient in the currency of the country transferring the data

several layers of approval are necessary before any data may be transferred to a non-EU entity

13) When revenue is recognized and shipment has not been made and the criteria for recognizing revenue on bill-and-hold transactions set out in SEC Staff Accounting Bulletin No. 101 have not been met, this is known as

timely revenue recognition

postrevenue recognition

premature revenue recognition

conservative revenue recognition

14. According to the Agency Theory, in a corporation there are two types of information consumers known as

principals and vendors

customers and agents

vendors and customers

agents and principals

15. Tom Donaldson and Tom Dunfee are proponents of ethical guidelines related to technology that are based on differentiating hypernorms from nonhypernorms. This theory is known as

Integrative Social Contracts Theory

Transparent Ethical Dilemma Theory

Electronic Communications Privacy Theory

Social Contract Network Theory

16. When the economist says that economic wants are insatiable, this means that

economic resources—land, labor, capital, and entrepreneurial ability—are scarce

these wants are virtually unlimited and therefore incapable of complete satisfaction

the structure of consumer demand varies from time to time and from country to country

economic resources are valuable only because they can be used to produce consumer goods

17. The pursuit of self-interest

is highly detrimental to the market system

means the same as selfishness

gives direction to the market system

is reflected in the behavior of firms, but not in the behavior of consumers

18) The bankruptcy of WorldCom in 2002 was due to the company’s actions in

expensing equipment purchases rather than capitalizing these purchases

failing to record revenues

classifying expenses as assets

recording fictitious liabilities

19) Productive efficiency refers to

the production of the product-mix most wanted by society

production at some point inside of the production possibilities curve

the full employment of all available resources

the use of the least-cost method of production

20. Agency costs arise when agents fail to act in the best interests of the principals. One example of losses from poor decisions would be

purchasing inferior material to earn yearly bonus

investing additional funds in profitable projects

prioritizing projects, according to the best interests of the corporation

increasing the scope of the audit of the financial statements

21) If the price of normal good X rises, the income

effect will induce the consumer to buy more of X and the substitution effect will induce him to buy less

and substitution effects will both induce the consumer to buy more of X

effect will induce the consumer to buy less of X and the substitution will induce him to buy more

and substitution effects will both induce the consumer to buy less of X

22) Section 55 of the Principles of Professional Conduct of the AICPA states that

members should accept the obligation to act in a way that will serve the public interest, honor the public trust, and demonstrate commitment to professionalism

a member should maintain objectivity and be free of conflicts of interest in discharging professional responsibilities

a member should observe the profession’s technical and ethical standards, strive continually to improve competence and quality of services, and discharge professional responsibility to the best of the member’s ability

members should perform all professional responsibilities with the highest sense of integrity

23) The concept of economic efficiency is primarily concerned with

the limited wants-unlimited resources dilemma

the conservation of irreplaceable natural resources

considerations of equity in the distribution of wealth

obtaining the maximum output from available resources

24. Which of the following is a normative statement?

The temperature is high today.

It is too hot to play tennis today.

It will cool off later this evening.

The humidity is high today.

25. Suppose that as the price of Y falls from $2.00 to $1.90 the quantity of Y demanded increases from 110 to 118. Then, the price elasticity of demand is

4.00

3.94

2.09

1.37

26) Other things equal, an excise tax on a product will

increase its supply

increase the quantity sold

increase its demand

increase its price

27) If a conflict of interest arises prior to entering into a business contract, the parties should

cease and desist because all conflicts of interest are irreconcilable

determine the type of conflict and if disclosure of the conflict of interest is sufficient to proceed with the contract

commence a cooling-off period until the conflict is removed

stop negotiations immediately and contact a mediator to negotiate the terms of the contract

28) Assuming an economy has fixed quantities of resources, that economy

is able to produce the same amount of output regardless of the production technologies it chooses

is able to satisfy all consumer wants

is more efficient, the larger the amount of goods and services it produces

will produce the same output whether or not resources are used efficiently

29) When evaluating the performance of managers in investment centers, performance metrics should be based on

only costs under their control

revenues, costs, and investments under their control

only investments under their control

revenue and costs under their control

30. When applying for a bank loan or trade credit, one way a company can appear to be in a healthier financial position would be to

overstate its expenses

understate its sales

undervalue its assets

understate its liabilities

 

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Select at least five peer-reviewed articles from the university library dealing with Section 27 and Section 27a of the Merchant Marine Act of 1920, commonly referred to as the Jones Act. Prepare a 4 page paper (main body) that presents a case for EITHER a) repealing the Act, or parts of it, or b) keeping the Jones Act in full force and effect.

Select at least five peer-reviewed articles from the university library dealing with Section 27 and Section 27a of the Merchant Marine Act of 1920, commonly referred to as the Jones Act.

Prepare a 4 page paper (main body) that presents a case for EITHER

 

a)    repealing the Act, or parts of it, or

 

b)    keeping the Jones Act in full force and effect.

 

The presentation should be in APA format citing appropriate sources. Remember that as with all papers this too needs a separate title and reference page.

This assignment will be graded on content, grammar, and format.  Keep your submissions concise, focused, and succinct.  Quality is preferred, and not quantity of verbiage.

Submit the paper in APA format with at least five supporting peer-to-peer references.

 

 

This assignment will be graded on content, grammar, and formatting.  5% similarity. Make sure you use adequate, credible and reliable APA source 3 citations to support your work.

 

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Exam 1) Acids act as (1pts) hydroxyl ions. hydrogen ion acceptors. proton donors as do bases. proton donors while a base accepts protons. 2) A base has a pH that is (1pts) above 7. equal to 7. below 7.

Exam
1) Acids act as
(1pts)
hydroxyl ions.
hydrogen ion acceptors.
proton donors as do bases.
proton donors while a base accepts protons.
2) A base has a pH that is
(1pts)
above 7.
equal to 7.
below 7.
3) The buffer system is essential for overall body homeostasis. What condition is due to an increase in blood pH?
(1pts)
acidosis.
alkalosis.
carbonic acid.
coma.
4) What is a neurotransmitter?
(1pts)
A chemical messenger that carrier signals from a neuron to a receiving cells across a synapse.
A chemical signal that is active at troponin active sites.
A hormonal signal that causes only muscle contractions.
An electrical signal that carrier signals from a neuron to a receiving cells across a synapse.
5) What is the neuromuscular junction?
(1pts)
A site where an electrical signal directly passes from a muscle to a neuron.
A site where an axon comes close to the cell membrane of a muscle.
A site where a dendrite comes close to the cell membrane of a muscle.
6) How does calcium relate to muscle contractions?
(1pts)
Calcium binds to tropomyosin and enables actin and myosin to interact.
Calcium binds to acetylcholine and enables actin and myosin to interact.
Calcium binds to actin and enables actin and myosin to interact.
Calcium binds to troponin and enables actin and myosin to interact.
7) The principal job of the human nervous system is to
(1pts)
store information.
provide for defense against pathogens.
facilitate communication among the body systems.
replace or repair damaged tissues.
8) The basic unit of the nervous system is
(1pts)
the neuron.
the brain.
neuroglia.
a nerve.
9) The single long process that extends from a typical motor nerve cell is the
(1pts)
dendrite.
neuron.
synapse.
axon.
10) At rest, a nerve cell has a high concentration of ____ inside and a high concentration of ____ outside.
(1pts)
calcium; phosphorus
sodium; potassium
potassium; sodium
acetylcholine; chlorine
11) For sodium to accumulate rapidly inside a neuron cell membrane,
(1pts)
there must be a dramatic increase in the negative charge of the cytoplasm
a voltage surge must cause the sodium gates to close.
a stimulus above the threshold must open sodium gates in an accelerating manner.
the wave of repolarization must occur to reestablish a resting potential.
12) Which is a junction between two neurons?
(1pts)
chemical synapse
Schwann cell
sodium gate
node
13) A deterioration in the myelin sheaths of motor axons to the lower leg would be expected to
(1pts)
have little effect because the sheaths are for insulation only.
cause immobility of the leg due to cessation of impulses to leg muscles.
remove the restraints to ion movement and speed up impulse transmission.
slow the rate of transmission and cause lack of motor control.
14) The two MAJOR divisions of the nervous system are the
(1pts)
autonomic and peripheral systems.
central and peripheral nervous systems.
sympathetic and parasympathetic systems.
cranial and spinal nerves.
15) The autonomic subdivision of the vertebrate nervous system would innervate all but which of the following?
(1pts)
liver
intestinal muscles
skeletal muscles
heart
16) Which statement is true?
(1pts)
The sympathetic branch of the autonomic system usually speeds up the activities of the body.
Both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems send nerves to all organs.
The sympathetic branch can have either excitatory or inhibitory effects depending on effects from the environment.
The sympathetic nervous system that supplies an organ will also provide parasympathetic nerves to it.
17) Information is processed and sensory input and motor responses are integrated in the
(1pts)
medulla.
pons.
cerebellum.
cerebrum.
18) Destruction of the motor areas in the left cerebral cortex results in the loss of
(1pts)
voluntary movement on the left side of the body.
sensation on the left side of the body.
voluntary movement on the right side of the body.
sensation on the right side of the body.
19) When it comes to memory, information is processed based on
(1pts)
route of input.
how much memory is already stored.
content.
relevance.
20) Although most hormones work at sites distant from where they are secreted, some work locally, such as
(1pts)
thyroid stimulating hormone.
luteinizing hormone.
follicle stimulating hormone.
prostaglandin.
21) The most common control mechanism to prevent overproduction or underproduction of hormones is
(1pts)
positive feedback.
opposing interaction.
negative feedback.
synergistic interaction.
22) Insulin and glucagon exhibit which type of hormone interaction?
(1pts)
synergistic
unrelating
opposing
permissive
23) The reason that some individual hormones have so many different effects is that
(1pts)
they influence gene transcription.
the hormone is carried throughout the body and only a small amount is needed to produce its effect.
they trigger a second messenger system that produces a cascade of effects.
there are a great many different cells in different tissues that have specific receptors for the hormone.
24) Which gland produces/releases hormones that have the widest range of effects on the body?
(1pts)
adrenal
thyroid
pineal
pituitary
25) The pituitary gland is controlled by the
(1pts)
medulla
corpus callosum.
hypothalamus
pons
26) If you were cast upon a desert island with no fresh water to drink, which of the following would increase in your bloodstream in an effort to conserve water?
(1pts)
insulin
oxytocin
glucose
antidiuretic hormone
27) A drop in blood volume would trigger the body to secrete
(1pts)
glucocorticoids.
insulin.
antidiuretic hormones.
parathyroid hormones.
28) Oversecretion of growth hormone in childhood results in
(1pts)
pituitary gigantism.
cretinism.
pituitary dwarfism.
diabetes insipidus.
29) You have just moved from Norfolk, Virginia (sea level), to Taos, New Mexico (high in the mountains), and you find yourself out of breath climbing a small hill. Three months later, climbing the same hill, you have no difficulty. In the interim you have not altered your level of activity or diet. Which hormone has been at work?
(1pts)
estrogen
aldosterone
erythropoietin
angiotensin
30) Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
(1pts)
stimulates the absorption of calcium in the kidneys.
stimulates osteoblasts to digest bone.
stimulates the release of intrinsic factor from the digestive tract.
is secreted from the thyroid gland.

 

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1. Which culture uses dry wood, plant roots, sida leaves, and herbs to treat diarrhea in children? Hindu Hmong German

Question

1. Which culture uses dry wood, plant roots, sida leaves, and herbs to treat diarrhea in children?

Hindu

Hmong

German

2. Which culture uses a traditional medical care system called hanbang, which focus on acupuncture, herbal medicines, and moxibustion therapy?

Korean

Arab

Amish

3. Which culture practices t’ai chi?

Polish

Cuban

Chinese

4. Which culture uses Morita therapy?

Japanese

Mexican

Puerto Rican

5. Which culture uses the root work system to identify and cure illnesses?

African American

German

Haitian

6. What culture uses teas with honey and spirits to “sweat out” a cold?

German

Polish

Filipino

7. As a health care provider, in which culture do you need to be aware of the hot and cold theory of disease when prescribing treatment and educating patients?

African American

Arab

Mexican

8. A strong belief in folk medicine is a traditional part of which culture?

Appalachian

African American

German

9. Which culture believed that drinking a mixture of an alcoholic drink and fish blood could cure alcoholism?

African American

Japanese

Haitian

Filipino

10. Which culture has stores called botanicas, which sell a variety of herbs, ointment, oils, and powders that relieve disease and bring luck?

Cuban

Polish

German

 

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1. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Purnell’s model? A. Provide a model that links the most central relationships of culture B. Provide a structure for analyzing cultural data C. Provide a model that stereotypes cultures D. Provide a framework for all health care providers to learn concepts and characteristics of culture

Question

1. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Purnell’s model?

A. Provide a model that links the most central relationships of culture

B. Provide a structure for analyzing cultural data

C. Provide a model that stereotypes cultures

D. Provide a framework for all health care providers to learn concepts and characteristics of culture

2. To what does the term cultural relativism refer?

A. The belief that behaviors and practices of people should be judged only from the context of their cultural system

B. The application of the majority group’s cultural view upon individuals and families

C. The practice of extending the policies and practices of one group to the disenfranchised and minority groups

3. To what does the term cultural awareness refer?

A. An appreciation of the external signs of diversity

B. Personal attitudes towards a culture

C. A skillful knowledge of ways in which to deliver care to cultures

03:08

4. Provide a model that stereotypes cultures

A stereotype is a broadly held but fixed and oversimplified illustration or idea of a particular type of person or entity. It is a cultural characteristic, on the other hand, is a model of behaviour that is characteristic of a certain group. Most important model of stereotypes is gender, racial and sexual remarks.
5. The empirical framework of Purnell’s model provides a basis for which of the following?

A. Educators

B. Researchers

C. Health care providers

D. All of the above

6. Which of the following are variant characteristics of culture?

A. Educational status

B. Nationality

C. Age

D. All of the above

7. Which of the following is NOT an assumption on which Purnell’s model is based?

A. Differences do not exist within, between, and among cultures.

B. Prejudices and biases can be minimized with cultural understanding.

C. Differences in race and culture often require adaptations to standard interventions.

8. To what does the term cultural sensitivity refer?

A. Personal attitudes toward other cultures and refraining from saying things that could be offensive to those from other cultures

B. A state of mind or feeling about an aspect of a culture

C. The way people look at the universe and form basic assumptions about the world around them

9. To what does the term subculture refer?

A. The gradual adoption and incorporation of characteristics from a culture

B. A group of people with a culture that differentiates them from the larger culture of which they are a part

C. A belief that the behaviors and practices of people should be judged only from the context of their cultural system

10. Which of the following is NOT one of the 12 domains of culture?

A. Age

B. Nutrition

C. Death rituals

D. Communication

 

 

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HLT324 quiz 4 1. In which culture is the body not left alone from the time of death until the funeral? A. Jewish B. Mexican C. Puerto Rican 2. Which culture does not believe in rushing to bury the deceased and typically holds burial services 5-7 days after a death? A. African Americans B. Arab C. Amish

Question

HLT324 quiz 4

1. In which culture is the body not left alone from the time of death until the funeral?

A. Jewish

B. Mexican

C. Puerto Rican

2. Which culture does not believe in rushing to bury the deceased and typically holds burial services 5-7 days after a death?

A. African Americans

B. Arab

C. Amish

3. Which culture believes in a 3-day period of mourning activities after the death of a family member?

A. Polish

B. Cuban

C. German

4. What culture is subdivided into church districts, with 30-50 families in each district?

A. African American

B. Arab

C. Amish

5. Which culture has special prayer services on the 1st, 3rd, 7th, 13th, and 17th anniversaries of the death?

A. Hindu

B. Japanese

C. German

6. Roman Catholics represent 85% of which culture?

A. Cuban

B. African American

C. German

7. Which culture is hesitant to purchase life insurance, as they fear to do so is inviting death?

A. Chinese

B. Japanese

C. Haitian

8. What culture washes the body of the deceased three times prior to dressing and burial?

A. German

B. Arab

C. Filipino

9. In which culture may an animal sacrifice be made to honor the deceased?

A. African American

B. German

C. Hmong

10. In which culture is the deceased cremated in less than 24 hours following the death for hygienic, population, purification, and spiritual reasons?

A. Hindu

B. Polish

C. German

 

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