(TCO 6) Judaism traces its origins back to this patriarch in the book of Genesis: (Points : 5) Abraham Isaac Jacob Joseph

Question

Question 1.1. (TCO 6) Judaism traces its origins back to this patriarch in the book of Genesis: (Points : 5)

Abraham

Isaac

Jacob

Joseph

Question 2.2. (TCO 7) What Jewish festival celebrates the liberation of the Israelites from Egypt (cf. Exodus)? (Points : 5)

Rosh Hashanah

Yom Kippur

Passover

Hanukkah

Question 3.3. (TCO 6) The first kings of Israel were: (Points : 5)

Saul, David, and Solomon.

Isaiah, Jeremiah, and Ezekial.

Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob.

James, Peter, and Paul.

Question 4.4. (TCO 6) A well-known leader of Reform Judaism in America was: (Points : 5)

Isaac Leeser.

Isaac M. Wise.

Abraham Cahan.

Mordecai Kaplan.

Question 5.5. (TCO 7) The authoritative list of the twenty-seven books that make up the New Testament (Christian Scriptures) is known as: (Points : 5)

the Dead Sea Scrolls.

Nag Hammadi Writings.

the Apocrypha.

the canon.

Question 6.6. (TCO 6) Our knowledge of the earliest period of the Church’s history comes from this New Testament book: (Points : 5)

Paul’s Letter to the Romans

The Gospel of Mark

The Acts of the Apostles

The Book of Revelation

Question 7.7. (TCO 6) The bishop who is considered the leader of the Eastern Orthodox Church is the: (Points : 5)

Archbishop of Canterbury.

Patriarch of Moscow.

Patriarch of Constantinople.

Bishop of Rome.

Question 8.8. (TCO 6) This term refers to those Protestant reformers who taught “rebaptism” (e.g., the Mennonites and Amish): (Points : 5)

Calvinism

Methodism

Quaker

Anabaptist

Question 9.9. (TCO 6) The most significant movement in religion since World War I is: (Points : 5)

revivalism.

fundamentalism.

Puritanism.

Calvinism.

 

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(TCO 7) Which statement is false about solar energy? (Points : 4) It is very abundant. It is nonpolluting. It is essentially everlasting. It is limited, especially in terrestrial ecosystems. It is the ultimate source of energy for nearly all ecosystems. Question 3.3. (TCO 7) OPEC stands for (Points : 4) The Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries. Occidental, Phillips, Exxon and Chevron. The Oil Producing and Exporting Cartel. The Ocean Power Energy Commission. The Organization for Petroleum Exploration Commission.

Question

Question 1.1. (TCO 7) The largest single end-use category of petroleum consumption in the United States is (Points : 4)

industry.

electrical generation.

home heating.

hot water heating.

transportation.

Question 2.2. (TCO 7) Which statement is false about solar energy? (Points : 4)

It is very abundant.

It is nonpolluting.

It is essentially everlasting.

It is limited, especially in terrestrial ecosystems.

It is the ultimate source of energy for nearly all ecosystems.

Question 3.3. (TCO 7) OPEC stands for (Points : 4)

The Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries.

Occidental, Phillips, Exxon and Chevron.

The Oil Producing and Exporting Cartel.

The Ocean Power Energy Commission.

The Organization for Petroleum Exploration Commission.

Question 4.4. (TCO 4) In the United States of America, the Kudzu Vine is an example of _____ specie. (Points : 4)

an endangered plant

an introduced plant

a threatened plant

an endemic plant

an extinct plant

Question 5.5. (TCO 4) A grouping of plants, animals, and microbes interacting with each other and their abiotic environment is defined as (Points : 4)

a biosphere.

a community.

an ecosystem.

a specie.

an association.

Question 6.6. (TCO 5) Which of the following is true of the status of women in developing countries? (Points : 4)

Women are not interested in further education or employment.

Women are given equal opportunities in education and employment.

Lack of education and discrimination limit economic opportunities for women.

Women are better educated than men.

Lack of education does not limit economic opportunities for women.

Question 7.7. (TCO 6) Total fertility refers to (Points : 4)

the number of children born in a country during a given year.

the average age at which women in a given country become sexually active.

the average number of children born per woman over her lifetime.

the number of children who survive to become reproductive adults.

the ratio of men to women in a population.

Question 8.8. (TCO 5) Women tend to have fewer and healthier children when they (Points : 4)

live in societies where they have few rights.

have access to education and career choices.

do not have access to paying jobs outside the home.

live in rural areas that have no access to birth control.

are persons of each sex ages 15 to 44.

Question 9.9. (TCO 6) Which of the following statistics are used to measure population growth rates? (Points : 4)

Emigration rates

Birth rates

Immigration rates

Death rates

All of the above

Question 10.10. (TCO 2) Which of the following are the three major gases in biogeochemical cycles? (Points : 4)

Nitrogen, ozone, hydrogen

Sulfur, ozone, helium

Nitrogen, oxygen, carbon dioxide

Oxygen, ammonia, nitrogen

Carbon dioxide, methane, oxygen

Question 11.11. (TCO 10) In general, urban dwellers have all of the following except (Points : 4)

better access to medical care.

less exposure to pollution and noise.

increased chances of physical injuries.

better access to education.

better access to social services.

Question 12.12. (TCO 10) Today’s cities are not self-sustaining because they import (Points : 4)

minerals.

food.

energy.

manufactured goods.

All of the above

Question 13.13. (TCO 10) Which of the following is the strongest argument for recycling plastics? (Points : 4)

Plastics burn hot and with little ash in WTE incinerators.

Plastics do not contribute to leachate in landfills.

Plastics do not generate biogas in landfills.

Plastics are produced from the fossil fuel petroleum.

Plastics are biodegradable.

Question 14.14. (TCO 10) A system of integrated waste management involves (Points : 4)

landfills.

recycling.

composting.

incinerating

a combination of ways to handle MSW.

Question 15.15. (TCO 1) Environmental impacts because of the strain of supporting 1.2 billion people in India include (Points : 4)

soil erosion.

air pollution in urban areas.

seriously polluted water.

deforestation.

All of the above

Question 16.16. (TCO 8) Dead zones in the Gulf of Mexico result from nutrient pollution in the Midwestern United States where (Points : 4)

nitrogen and phosphorus leach from soils with low nutrient-holding capacity.

nitrogen and phosphorus leach from soils with high nutrient-holding capacity.

iron and aluminum oxides leach from soils with low nutrient-holding capacity.

iron and aluminum oxides leach from soils with high nutrient-holding capacity.

sulfur and nitrogen leach from soils with high nutrient-holding capacity.

Question 17.17. (TCO 9) Climate change and global warming affects which of the following? (Points : 4)

Aquatic flora and fauna

Terrestrial flora and fauna

Climatic conditions

Agricultural practices

All of the above

Question 18.18. (TCO 3) Meeting higher CAFÉ standards in the United States will result in (Points : 4)

fewer coal-burning power plants.

increased reliance upon wind and solar energy.

increased reliance upon natural gas.

better gas mileage and less air pollution.

lesser mileage and more air pollution.

Question 19.19. (TCO 3) The 1970 Clean Air Act and subsequent environmental regulations have resulted in (Points : 4)

reductions in lead by about 99%.

reductions in carbon monoxide by about 10%.

surprising increases in sulfur dioxide levels by about 5%.

surprising increases in radon levels by about 20%.

reductions in carbon dioxide by about 60%.

Question 20.20. (TCO 3) Most of the public health impacts from air pollution are the result of (Points : 4)

a single pollutant in a short period.

many pollutants in a short period.

a single pollutant over a long period.

many pollutants over a long period.

a few pollutants outdoors in the spring.

Question 21.21. (TCO 3) The nuclear power industry in the United States has declined because of (Points : 4)

high construction and operating costs.

concerns about safety.

concerns about radioactive waste disposal.

concerns about security.

All of the above

Question 22.22. (TCO 8) Which of the following marine ecosystems is polluted from ocean dumping and coastal development? (Points : 4)

Mangrove swamps

Turtle habitats

Coral reefs

Wetlands

All of the above

Question 23.23. (TCO 1) The three major biotic components of ecosystem structure are (Points : 4)

producers, herbivores, and carnivores.

producers, consumers, and decomposers.

plants, animals, and climate.

consumers, bacteria, and decomposers.

temperature, moisture, and light.

Question 24.24. (TCO 5) Negative population growth or depopulation or population decline is being observed in countries that have a (Points : 4)

high birth rates and low death rates.

low birth rates and low death rates.

low birth rates and high death rates.

high death rates and high birth rates.

None of the above

Question 25.25. (TCO 7) Which of the following statements about geothermal power is false? (Points : 4)

It has moderate net energy yields for large, accessible sites.

Easily accessible geothermal sites are rare.

It can have some slight effect on adjacent ecosystems.

It releases a lot of air pollution.

It has very high efficiency.

Question 26.26. (TCO 3) The United States represents about 4.5% of the world’s population, yet we consume about (Points : 4)

5% of the world’s oil supply.

15% of the world’s oil supply.

25% of the world’s oil supply.

50% of the world’s oil supply.

60% of the world’s supply.

Question 27.27. (TCO 7) In terms of energy security, how do renewable forms of energy differ from fossil fuels? (Points : 4)

They are found only in the developed countries.

They are found only in developing countries.

They can be transported easily from developed to developing countries.

They are distributed more equitably across the earth.

They are just as geographically concentrated as fossil fuels.

Question 28.28. (TCO 4) Biodiversity, the variety of life, gene pools, habitats, and species is richest in (Points : 4)

river deltas.

tropical rain forests and coral reefs.

temperate mountains.

the north pole ecosystems.

the south pole ecosystems.

Question 29.29. (TCO 1) Assuming that these people do not use tobacco products, a person in which of the following professions would most likely have the highest exposure to benzene, a known carcinogen? (Points : 4)

A truck driver

A cashier at a grocery store

An accountant working in a large office building

A psychology professor

An elementary school teacher

Question 30.30. (TCO 7) Fossil fuels are _____ energy sources. (Points : 4)

renewable

environmentally friendly

clean

efficient

non-renewable

Question 31. 31. (TCO 7) Nuclear power has been an important source of energy for many countries in the world today. France, for example, gets close to 80% of its energy from nuclear power. However there are many concerns about this source of energy. Discuss the economic, political, and environmental concerns surrounding the use of nuclear power as an energy source. (Points : 30)

Question 32. 32. (TCOs 5 and 6) The World’s Human Population is now above 7 billion people. Over 50% of these people are in the developing countries in the world and are faced with many challenges trying to provide a stable environment for their citizens to thrive. Discuss, with clear examples, the five main challenges these countries face. There will be 6 points for each example and explanation. (Points : 30)

Question 33. 33. (TCO 4): The biodiversity of plant and animal species (flora and fauna) dictates all our social and economic activities. Discuss six key inputs into our lives from biodiversity that we cannot live without. (Points : 25)

Question 34. 34. (TCO 8) Rivers and lakes in the developing countries have become more and more polluted over the year. The Mississippi in the United States and the Rhine River in Europe are examples. Discuss three sources of pollution for each river and the impact of this pollution on the aquatic life. (Points : 25)

 

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Question : (TCO 1) The Dietary Guidelines to Americans has defined physically active as a: minimum of 60 minutes of moderate activity most days. minimum of 30 minutes of moderate activity most days. minimum of 15 minutes of intense activity most days. total of eight hours of moderate activity per week.

Week 1 Quiz

1. Question : (TCO 1) Which of the following is an example of disease that is directly caused by a nutritional deficiency?

Anemia

Cancer

Osteoporosis

Heart disease

Question 2. Question : (TCO 1) The Dietary Guidelines to Americans has defined physically active as a:

minimum of 60 minutes of moderate activity most days.

minimum of 30 minutes of moderate activity most days.

minimum of 15 minutes of intense activity most days.

total of eight hours of moderate activity per week.

Question 3. Question : (TCO 1) Aim for fitness, build a healthy base, and choose sensibly are general directives of:

The Food Guide Pyramid.

The Nutrition Facts Panel.

The Dietary Guidelines for Americans.

The Nutrition Recommendations for Canadians.

Question 4. Question : (TCO 1) Hunger is best described as:

a physiological desire to consume food.

a psychological desire to consume food.

eating that is often driven by environmental cues.

eating that is often driven by emotional cues.

Question 5. Question : (TCO 3) Which of the following does NOT describe the cell membrane of an animal cell?

Rigid barrier resistant to all noncellular molecules

Structurally organized into a lipid bilayer

Dynamic and continuously changing

Perimeter structure of the cell that is composed of phospholipids, cholesterol, proteins, and carbohydrate chains

Question 6. Question : (TCO 3) What is chyme?

Ulcerations of the esophageal lining

Healthy bacteria of the small intestine

Mixture of partially digested food, water, and gastric juices

Substance that allows for the emulsification of dietary lipid

Question 7. Question : (TCO 3) The main symptom associated with Clostridium botulinum intoxication is:

diarrhea.

paralysis.

anemia.

jaundice.

Question 8. Question : (TCO 3) Which of the following foods is most likely to contain sulfites?

Peas (canned)

Yogurt

Grapes (fresh)

Ground beef

Question 9. Question : (TCO 3) Which of the following is NOT a recommended method for preventing cross-contamination?

Washing utensils and cutting boards in the dishwasher

Using a porous wood cutting board

Washing dishtowels and aprons often

Separating raw and cooked foods

Question 10. Question : (TCO 3) Which of the following is an example of a persistent organic pollutant?

Mercury

GMO

Sulfite

Coal tar

Week 2 Quiz.

1. Question : (TCO 1) Which of the following is a disaccharide?

Sucrose

Fructose

Galactose

Glucose

Question 2. Question : (TCO 1) A disaccharide is formed by the chemical bonding of:

two monosaccharides.

two polysaccharides.

one monosaccharide and one polysaccharide.

two oligosaccharides.

Question 3. Question : (TCO 1) Which of the following carbohydrates is the end product of photosynthesis?

Glycogen

Galactose

Lactose

Glucose

Question 4. Question : (TCO 2) After a meal, which hormone is responsible for moving glucose into the body’s cells?

Glucagon

Estrogen

CCK

Insulin

Question 5. Question : (TCO 2) Which of the following hormones is released when your blood glucose levels fall too low?

Insulin

Estrogen

Bile

Glucagon

Question 6. Question : (TCO 2) Which of the following is associated with diets high in added sugars?

Hyperactivity

Tooth decay

Diabetes

All of these

Question 7. Question : (TCO 3) Peggy Sue’s doctor wants to screen her for reactive hypoglycemia. If her doctor’s suspicions are correct and Peggy Sue does have reactive hypoglycemia, what would you expect her blood glucose concentration to be at approximately TWO HOURS after she had begun her glucose tolerance test?

Elevated as compared to a normal individual

Depressed as compared to a normal individual

Normal; two hours after consuming the glucose load, her blood concentrations will be no different from those of a normal individual

Question 8. Question : (TCO 3) Which artificial sweetener was almost banned because of a proposed relationship with bladder cancer in experimental animals?

Saccharin

Sucralose

Aspartame

Acesulfame-K

Question 9. Question : (TCO 3) Over 16 million Americans have diabetes. Which of the following is the most prevalent form of diabetes?

Type I

Type II

Gestational

Pediatric

Question 10. Question : (TCO 4) Yogurt is tolerated better than milk by many lactase-deficient people because:

yogurt has no lactose.

bacteria in yogurt help digest the lactose.

it has a thicker consistency.

yogurt is acidic.

Week 3 Quiz

Question 1 : (TCO 3) Which of the following is a rich source of polyunsaturated fatty acids?

Corn oil

Coconut oil

Beef fat

Butter

Question 2. Question : (TCO 3) Which of the following foods is the richest source of omega-3 fatty acids?

Broccoli

Sirloin steak

Tofu

Salmon

Question 3. Question : (TCO 6) Which of the following health problems has been associated with high intakes of fat replacers?

Allergies

Gastrointestinal distress

Elevated blood cholesterol levels

Hypertension

Question 4. Question : (TCO 6) To facilitate the digestion of dietary fats, the gallbladder stores and releases a substance known as:

lipase.

bile.

hydrochloric acid.

bicarbonate.

Question 5. Question : (TCO 6) What element makes protein different from carbohydrates and fat?

Carbon

Hydrogen

Oxygen

Nitrogen

Question 6. Question : (TCO 5) All of the following are examples of protein hormones EXCEPT:

insulin.

thyroid.

glucagon.

estrogen.

Question 7. Question : (TCO 5) The process through which mRNA copies genetic information from DNA and carries it to the ribosome is called:

translation.

deamination.

denaturation.

transcription.

Question 8. Question : (TCO 5) The type of protein-energy malnutrition characterized by a general lack of protein, energy, and nutrients in the diet is called:

marasmus.

sickle cell anemia.

cystic fibrosis.

kwashiorkor.

Question 9. Question : (TCO 5) Oligopeptides are a string of ________ amino acids.

1-2

4-9

10-15

more than 25

Question 10. Question : (TCO 5) Which of the following is a genetic disorder resulting in debilitating protein abnormalities?

Cystic fibrosis

Mad cow disease

Acidosis

Kwashiorkor

Week 5 Quiz

Question 1: (TCO 3) Which of the following are required components of antioxidant enzyme systems?

Antioxidant minerals

Antioxidant vitamins

Phytochemicals

Gastrointestinal microflora

Question 2. Question : (TCO 3) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding free radicals?

Free radicals are formed as a by-product of healthy metabolism.

Our body has no mechanism to combat free radicals.

Exposure to pollution increases free radical production.

Many diseases, such as cancer and heart disease, are linked to free radical damage.

Question 3. Question : (TCO 7) Taking Vitamin E supplements along with ________ can cause uncontrollable bleeding.

antidepressants

anticoagulants

cholesterol-lowering medications

oral contraceptives

Question 4. Question : (TCO 7) Diseases that cause the malabsorption of fat can result in a deficiency of:

Vitamin A.

Vitamin E.

Vitamin C.

Both answers: Vitamin A and Vitamin E.

Question 5. Question : (TCO 7) The doctor has recently told Julie that she is anemic. Julie should consume ________ with her iron supplement to increase its absorption.

a tablespoon of castor oil

a glass of milk

a glass of orange juice

scrambled eggs

Question 6. Question : (TCO 8) The retinoid that has the most important physiological role in the human body is:

retinol.

retinoic acid.

retinal.

beta-carotene.

Question 7. Question : (TCO 8) At what stage in the development of cancer is the DNA mutated?

Initiation

Promotion

Progression

Metastasis

Question 8. Question : (TCO 8) Which of the following organs is the site of dietary Vitamin D absorption?

Mouth

Stomach

Small intestine

Large intestine

Question 9. Question : (TCO 9) What is the primary reason why osteoporosis incidents in the United States are expected to increase?

Inadequate treatment options

Increased diagnostic tools

Increased longevity of the population

Decline in milk consumption

Question 10. Question : (TCO 9) Newborn infants receive a single injection of Vitamin K at birth due to the fact that:

newborns do not have enough bacteria in their small intestines to make Vitamin K.

breast milk is a poor source of Vitamin K.

the trauma of labor and delivery depletes the newborn’s Vitamin K stores.

newborns cannot absorb any of the Vitamin K from breast milk or formula.

 

 

 

Week 6 Quiz

Question 1: (TCO 1) How much energy does 10 grams of carbohydrates provide?

20 calories

60 calories

80 calories

40 calories

Question 2. Question : (TCO 2) Which of the following sports is the least likely to place a young girl or woman at risk for the female athlete triad?

Figure skating

Soccer

Diving

Distance running

Question 3. Question : (TCO 3) Which of the following BEST describes exercise?

Any movement produced by muscles that increases energy expenditure

Maximal force or tension level that can be produced by a muscle group

Leisure physical activity that is purposeful, planned, and structured

Ability to move a joint fluidly through the complete range of motion

Question 4. Question : (TCO 4) Joseph plays basketball for his high school team and he is concerned that he is not consuming enough kilocalories to support his activity. Which of the following would be the best indicator that he is not consuming adequate kilocalories?

His performance has been impaired.

He is losing weight.

His blood glucose levels are low.

His hemoglobin is low.

Question 5. Question : (TCO 5) The type of eating disorder characterized by episodes of binging and purging is:

anorexia nervosa.

bulimia nervosa.

compulsive eating disorder.

binge eating disorder.

Question 6. Question : (TCO 6) What is meant by the notion that eating behaviors are conditioned?

Eating habits affect our moods.

Previous experiences, such as those that occur during childhood, affect our current responses to food and eating behaviors.

Food consumption only occurs in response to external stimuli.

The intensity and duration of physical activity impacts our response to food and eating habits.

Question 7. Question : (TCO 7) Which of the following BEST explains why individuals with anorexia nervosa have an increased risk for developing osteoporosis?

Decreased estrogen production

Frequent electrolyte imbalance

Malabsorption of calcium

Low body weight

Question 8. Question : (TCO 8) Which of the following is the most common eating disorder?

Anorexia nervosa

Bulimia nervosa

Binge-eating disorder

Pica

Question 9. Question : (TCO 9) Which of the following eating disorders is the most common among men?

Anorexia nervosa

Bulimia nervosa

Binge-eating disorder

Reverse anorexia

Question 10. Question : (TCO 10) Which of the following would NOT be an appropriate treatment strategy in treating someone with anorexia nervosa?

Psychotropic medications

Minimum weight gain of five pounds/week

Family therapy

Restoration of healthy eating habits

Week 7 Quiz .

Question 1: (TCO 4) The inner portion of the zygote that implants in the uterine lining is called the:

fetus.

blastocyst.

embryo.

placenta.

Question 2. Question : (TCO 4) ________ is the point at which the ovum becomes fertilized by the sperm.

Implantation

Conception

Parturition

Gestation

Question 3. Question : (TCO 5) During the first trimester, women are advised to gain no more than:

3-5 pounds.

5-10 pounds.

10-15 pounds.

15-20 pounds.

Question 4. Question : (TCO 6) The primary cause of heartburn and constipation during pregnancy is:

inadequate fluid intake by the mother.

overeating by the mother.

intolerance to prenatal vitamins.

relaxation of the smooth muscles.

Question 5. Question : (TCO 7) All of the following are associated with gestational diabetes EXCEPT:

delivery of a low-birth-weight infant.

increased maternal risk of developing Type II diabetes.

increased maternal risk of developing preeclampsia.

increased fetal risk of developing Type II diabetes.

Question 6. Question : (TCO 8) At birth, Baby Molly weighs seven pounds. If her growth and development are normal, what would you expect Molly to weigh on her first birthday?

14 pounds

18 pounds

21 pounds

30 pounds

Question 7. Question : (TCO 9) Overweight in children is defined as:

BMI 75th percentile.

BMI 85th percentile.

BMI 95th percentile.

BMI 100th percentile.

Question 8. Question : (TCO 10) Atrophic gastritis is a common condition among older adults that impairs the ability to absorb ________.

Vitamin B6

Vitamin B12

Vitamin C

zinc

Question 9. Question : (TCO 10) ________ is added to municipal water supplies to promote healthy teeth formation.

Fluoride

Sodium

Vitamin D

Zinc

Question 10. Question : (TCO 10) Peak bone mass is typically achieved in:

late childhood.

early teens.

late teens and early 20s.

the late 30s.

 

 

 

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Which of the following is an example of a regulator? a. raising a hand to speak in class b. playing with a pen when anxious c. pointing to show where your car is d. the “peace sign”

Question 1

Which of the following is an example of a regulator?

a. raising a hand to speak in class

b. playing with a pen when anxious

c. pointing to show where your car is

d. the “peace sign”

Question 2

Scratching your arm too relieve an itch is an example of what type of body movement?

a. emblem

b. illustrator

c. regulator

d. adaptor

Question 3

_____________________ are substitutes for words.

a. Chronemics

b. Kinesics

c. Emblems

d. Olfactics

Question 4

_____________________ is the study of spatial communication.

a. Chronemics

b. Kinesics

c. Haptics

d. Proxemics

Question 5

Touch may communicate many different meanings including

a. control.

b. all of the above.

c. playfulness.

d. positive emotions.

Question 6

The inability to engage in emotional communication is called

a. dysphasia.

b. shyness.

c. dyssemia.

d. reticence.

Question 7

Although Arianna has a lot of coworkers and acquaintances, she doesn’t have anyone she can relate to on an intimate level. Arianna is experiencing

a. disconfirmation.

b. emotional isolation.

c. emotional contagion.

d. static evaluation.

Question 8

Which of the following is an example of an emotional appeal?

a. enthusiasm

b. guilt

c. pity

d. all of the above are examples

Question 9

Another term for “emotional intelligence” is

a. emotive competence.

b. empathy.

c. interpersonal competence.

d. social intelligence.

Question 10

According to a study on emotions in the workplace, which of the following is TRUE?

a. Women tend to feel better after crying while men feel worse.

b. Men were more disapproving of those who cry on the job.

c. Women and men reported crying on the job in approximately equal amounts.

d. Women were more disapproving of those who cry on the job.

Question 11

In regard to expressing emotions, “owning feelings” means

a. knowing you can’t influence the emotions of others.

b. taking control of your negative emotions.

c. finding the root cause of your emotions.

d. taking responsibility for your feelings.

Question 12

Kim gets annoyed because her friend Courntey forwards to her every chain e-mail that lands in her inbox. Kim needs to tell Courtney to stop violating the maxim of

a. manner.

b. quality.

c. quantity.

d. relation.

Question 13

“A relatively informal interaction in which the roles of the speaker and hearer are exchanged in a nonautomatic fashion under the collaborative management of all parties” is called

a. maxim of manner.

b. monologue.

c. phatic communication.

d. conversation.

Question 14

When Lacey told her instructor, “I need you to give me a makeup test” she was violating the maxim of

a. tact.

b. agreement.

c. generosity.

d. approbation.

Question 15

According to _______________ theory, you can develop close relationships in both face-to-face and online contexts.

a. social presence

b. social feedback

c. social exchange

d. social information processing

 

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Which of the following formats would be used for visits that address problems not yet identified in the problem-oriented medical record (POMR)?

Question

Week 1 quiz

Question 1 Drawing of stick figures is most useful to:

Question 2 Mr. F. is speaking with you, the health care provider, about his respiratory problem. Mr. F. says, I ve had this cough for 3 days, and it s getting worse. You reply, Tell me more about your cough. Mr. F. states, I wish I could tell you more. That s why I m here. You tell me what s wrong! Which caregiver response would be most appropriate for enhancing communication?

Question 3 During the course of the interview you should:

Question 4 Which of the following formats would be used for visits that address problems not yet identified in the problem-oriented medical record (POMR)?

Question 5 Constitutional symptoms in the ROS refer to:

Question 6 A detailed description of the symptoms related to the chief complaint is presented in the:

Question 7 Which of the following is not a characteristic of the plan portion of the problem-oriented medical record?

Question 8 When recording assessments during the construction of the problem-oriented medical record, the examiner should:

Question 9 Mrs. G. reports an increase in her alcohol intake over the past 5 years. To screen her for problem drinking, you would use the:

Question 10 During a history-taking session, Mr. B. appears to be avoiding certain questions. He keeps looking out the window. What should the caregiver do?

Question 11 Mary Jane has brought in her 16-year-old son, Kyle. She states that he has been sleeping more, doesn t hang around his friends, and recently his girlfriend broke up with him. Your most immediate question is to ask Kyle:

Question 12 You are collecting a history from an 11-year-old girl. Her mother is sitting next to her in the examination room. When collecting history from older children or adolescents, they should be:

Question 13 J.M. has been seen in your clinic for 5 years. She presents today with signs and symptoms of acute sinusitis. The type of history that is warranted is a(n) _____ history.

Question 14 A tool used to screen adolescents for alcoholism is the:

Question 15 Ms. S. reports that she is concerned about her loss of appetite. During the history, you learn that her last child recently moved out of her house to go to college. Rather than infer the cause of Ms. S. s loss of appetite, it would be better to:

Question 16 Subjective and symptomatic data are:

Question 17 Which of the following is an effective adjunct to document location of findings during recording of physical examinations?

Question 18 When taking a history, you should:

Question 19 Which question would be considered a leading question?

Question 20 Which of the following is considered an IADL but not an ADL?

 

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(TCO 7) Describe how today’s conservatives use the term “political economy.” (Points : 3) Conservatives use the term to try to get back to the pure market system advocated by Adam Smith. Conservatives understand the term within the context of Machiavelli’s The Prince. Conservatives veer toward John Stuart Mill’s usage, which advocated utilitarianism. Conservatives take a neo-utilitarian approach, hoping to benefit the weakest members of society.

Question

Question 1.1. (TCO 7) Describe how today’s conservatives use the term “political economy.” (Points : 3)

Conservatives use the term to try to get back to the pure market system advocated by Adam Smith.

Conservatives understand the term within the context of Machiavelli’s The Prince.

Conservatives veer toward John Stuart Mill’s usage, which advocated utilitarianism.

Conservatives take a neo-utilitarian approach, hoping to benefit the weakest members of society.

Question 2.2. (TCO 7) Describe British economist John Maynard Keynes’ proposal to cure economic depressions. (Points : 3)

Keynes suggested infusing the economy with government funds to promote spending.

Keynes advocated for “trickle-down” economic policies.

Keynes argued for stronger stimulus packages to corporations and small businesses.

Keynes proposed to cure depressions by dampening the swings of the business cycle.

Question 3.3. (TCO 7) President Jimmy Carter attempted to stimulate the economy, but this made inflation worse. This led him to _____. (Points : 3)

lose the 1980 election

slash prices of corn and soybeans

subsidize major oil companies

increase the national deficit

Question 4.4. (TCO 7) Conservatives hold that Johnson’s Great Society was a waste of money, locking recipients into _____ and encouraging a subculture of drugs and crime. (Points : 3)

entitlement benefits

perpetual subsidies

social safety nets

welfare dependency

Question 5.5. (TCO 7) Which U.S. President is responsible for implementing the Food Stamp program nationwide? (Points : 3)

John F. Kennedy

Lyndon B. Johnson

Richard Nixon

Jimmy Carter

Question 6.6. (TCO 7) Differentiate between the rising costs of Medicare and Medicaid. (Points : 3)

Medicare anticipates rising costs due to changing proportions of people over 65.

Medicaid expects rising costs due to looming financial busts.

Medicare plans to keep spending down by raising the eligibility age to 69.

Medicaid hopes to beat rising costs by adjusting the poverty level.

Question 7.7. (TCO 7) Why are many politicians wary about limiting Social Security and Medicare expenses? (Points : 3)

Many would be left without enough to support them.

Caps to these programs would undermine the welfare state.

It can cost them votes.

Both are primary social safety nets.

Question 8.8. (TCO 7) Compare American and Canadian views on the size of government. (Points : 3)

Americans believe the government is too small, and Canadians feel that government intrudes on individual privacy.

America and Canada are similar nations located in North America, and both Americans and Canadians feel that government is too large.

Americans and Canadians generally agree that government should be larger, funding welfare programs such as Medicaid and Food Stamps.

Many Americans believe government is too large, and Canadians recognize that government has a pivotal role to play and accept higher taxes.

Question 9.9. (TCO 7) What was the poverty line in 2012? (Points : 3)

$14,505

$17,060

$23,050

$26,750

Question 10.10. (TCO 7) Many conservative economists argue that some banks are _____, because they would topple the rest of the economy with them. (Points : 3)

inherently successful

too big to fail

destined for profit

practically invincible

 

 

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Which of the following is an effective adjunct to document location of findings during recording of physical examinations?

Question

Week 3 quiz

Question 1 Milestone achievements are data most likely to appear in the history of:

Question 2 In clinical practice, the Ballard Assessment Tool is used to assess a newborn’s:

Question 3 At what age does peak height growth velocity occur in boys?

Question 4 Which breast Tanner stage corresponds to a secondary areola mound development above the breast?

Question 5 Gender-specific skeletal differences first occur during:

Question 6 A detailed description of the symptoms related to the chief complaint is presented in the:

Question 7 Subjective and symptomatic data are:

Question 8 Which of the following is an example of a problem requiring recording on the patients problem list?

Question 9 Deficiency of which micronutrient is implicated in osteoporosis?

Question 10 When recording assessments during the construction of the problem-oriented medical record, the examiner should:

Question 11 In children 3 to 18 years of age, the formula age + 5 g should be used to determine _____ needs.

Question 12 Which medication is frequently associated with weight gain?

Question 13 Which of the following is an effective adjunct to document location of findings during recording of physical examinations?

Question 14 A major risk factor for developing an eating disorder is having:

Question 15 Which of the following formats would be used for visits that address problems not yet identified in the problem-oriented medical record (POMR)?

Question 16 An anorexia patient is different from the bulimic patient because of the following characteristics:

Question 17 You are advising a patient concerning his targeted low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C) level. The patient currently smokes and has medication-controlled hypertension. You should tell this patient that he should modify his diet and exercise in order to meet the target LDL-C of <_____ mg/dL.

Question 18 The patient s perceived disabilities and functional limitations are recorded in the:

Question 19 During the course of the interview you should:

Question 20 Which B vitamin is deficient in patients with pernicious anemia?

 

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Describe the difference between direct costs and variable costs. Consider how a healthcare manager might use this information in making decisions. How might you, as a healthcare manager use cost allocation method to assign costs to support activities to patient services?

UNIT 3 HS440

PART1: Responses should be around 150 words APA format with refrences.*

· Describe the difference between direct costs and variable costs. Consider how a healthcare manager might use this information in making decisions. How might you, as a healthcare manager use cost allocation method to assign costs to support activities to patient services?

PART 2: Follow APA formatting for the Title and Reference page, as well as APA formatting within the paper itself (Times New Roman 12-point font and properly double spaced).

The minimum page limit is 2 pages or 600 words.

The maximum page limit is 4 pages or 1200 words.

Describe international standard diagnosis classification use in the US health care reimbursement and billing system.

· Describe the importance of proper coding in healthcare to ensure prompt reimbursement by answering the following questions:

· Describe the role of finance in the healthcare system.

· Describe the Diagnosis codes and how they are used, impacting reimbursement.

· Describe the features of third-party payers

· Explain the reimbursement methods used and the effects of coding on reimbursement.

 

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Develop a plan for unit testing. Include specific application functions that will be tested and how the tests will be conducted.

This assignment shold be about 2-3 pages

 

Testing and quality assurance is also an important phase within the software development life cycle (SDLC); however, it can start as early as the design phase and continue into deployment. Planning for these during the design phase and executing during development and implementation is critical and could halt final deployment until discovered errors are corrected.

The project deliverables are as follows:

  • Update the System Requirements, Design, and Implementation Specification title page with the new date.
  • Update the previously completed sections based on the instructor’s feedback.
  • Test and Quality Assurance Plan
    • Develop a plan for unit testing. Include specific application functions that will be tested and how the tests will be conducted.
    • Develop a plan for system testing. Include areas that you will test within both the application and a system as a whole and how errors will be tracked and reported.
    • Develop a plan for user acceptance testing. Include key stakeholders who should perform the test and how they will record any issues that they find.
    • Develop a quality assurance plan. Include specific quality assurance methods or control, what their purpose is, and in which phase they will be utilized.
  • Name the document “yourname_IT425_IP3.doc.”
 

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