1 out of 1 points Which of the following is the most difficult to estimate term in the economic gain formula? A. Average tenure of employees. B. Number of applicants. C. Dollar value of job performance. D. Cost per applicant.

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Question

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is the most difficult to estimate term in the economic gain formula?

A. Average tenure of employees.

B. Number of applicants.

C. Dollar value of job performance.

D. Cost per applicant.

Question 2

1 out of 1 points

From the newcomer’s perspective, likely components for inclusion in the socialization process include addressing _________.

A. performance proficiency

B. organization goals and values

C. politics

D. all of the above are correct

Question 3

1 out of 1 points

Economic separation costs associated with voluntary turnover include ________.

A. hiring inducements

B. rehiring costs

C. manager’s time

D. more than one of the above

Question 4

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following must report to the EEOC annually?

A. all employers

B. private employers with over 100 employees (50 for federal contractors)

C. private employers with over 1000 employees (500 for federal contractors)

D. only organizations with federal contracts

Question 5

1 out of 1 points

Long-term variable pay plans provide employees ownership opportunities as the value of the organization increases are applicable only in the ____.

A. public sector

B. private sector

C. technology sector

D. none of the above

Question 6

1 out of 1 points

If an organization wishes to comply with the law and still increase the diversity of its workforce, it should ___________.

A. de-emphasize selection based on KSAOs

B. use recruitment as a tool for attracting a more diverse and qualified applicant pool

C. use clinical and other subjective prediction methods

D. all of the above

Question 7

1 out of 1 points

As organization size increases, the likelihood that there will be a highly centralized HR department _________.

A. increases

B. decreases

C. stays about the same

D. none of the above

Question 8

1 out of 1 points

A _____ contract provides certainty to both the new hire and the organization regarding the length of the employment relationship.

A. variable premium

B. fixed annuity

C. fixed-term

D. latent variable

Question 9

1 out of 1 points

Human resources information systems have been used for which of the following functions?

A.EEO data analysis and reports

B. employee succession planning

C. databases of job titles and responsibilities

D. all of the above

Question 10

1 out of 1 points

In terms of who should participate in selection decision making (i.e., HR professionals vs. line managers), HR professionals would be least likely to ________.

A. make the hiring decision

B. establish selection procedures

C. ensure relevant laws and regulations are being followed

D. represent the interests of employees to management

Question 11

1 out of 1 points

Consideration in a contract entails __________.

A. evidence that both parties agree to the terms as offered

B. a polite exchange of information

C. the exchange of something of value between the parties to the contract

D. none of the above

Question 12

1 out of 1 points

Number of positions filled and job performance are examples of __________ staffing metrics.

A. cost

B. timeliness

C. outcomes

D. reactions

Question 13

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is an example of a major employee offense?

A. sabotage

B. theft

C. drug/alcohol abuse at work

D. all of the above

 

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11. The membranes of all postganglionic neurons in autonomic ganglia have a. somatotrophic receptors. b. muscarinic receptors. c. adrenergic receptors. d. nicotinic receptors. e. macrotinic receptors.

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11. The membranes of all postganglionic neurons in autonomic ganglia have

a. somatotrophic receptors.

b. muscarinic receptors.

c. adrenergic receptors.

d. nicotinic receptors.

e. macrotinic receptors.

12. Autonomic reflexes

are impossible.

are integrated somewhere in the CNS.

have efferent input and afferent output.

are an example of positive feedback.

are harmful.

13. Which of the following is NOT a parasympathetic effect?

a. constriction of the pupils of the eye

b. contraction of the urinary bladder

c. decreased heart rate

d. dilation of the bronchioles in the lungs

e. increased gastric secretions

14. The figure illustrates the parasympathetic division. What does “A” represent?

a. preganglionic neurons

b. pelvic nerves

c. cranial nerves

d. postganglionic neurons

e. terminal ganglia

15. The figure illustrates the parasympathetic division. What does “B” represent?

a. preganglionic neurons

b. pelvic nerves

c. cranial nerves

d. postganglionic neurons

e. terminal ganglia

16. The figure illustrates the parasympathetic division. What does “C” represent?

a. preganglionic neurons

b. pelvic nerves

c. cranial nerves

d. postganglionic neurons

e. terminal ganglia

17. The figure illustrates the parasympathetic division. What does “D” represent?

a. preganglionic neurons

b. pelvic nerves

c. cranial nerves

d. postganglionic neurons

e. terminal ganglia

18. The figure illustrates the parasympathetic division. What does “E” represent?

a. preganglionic neurons

b. pelvic nerves

c. cranial nerves

d. postganglionic neurons

e. terminal ganglia

 

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Why does inhaling deeply and slowly through the nose help to identify an odor? a. More air containing the odor is brought into contact with the olfactory epithelium. b. Impulses originate slowly in the olfactory epithelium. c. The tissue needs more time in contact with the odor. d. Threshold for odor detection is high. e. Receptors in the olfactory epithelium are highly specific.

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1. Why does inhaling deeply and slowly through the nose help to identify an odor?

a. More air containing the odor is brought into contact with the olfactory epithelium.

b. Impulses originate slowly in the olfactory epithelium.

c. The tissue needs more time in contact with the odor.

d. Threshold for odor detection is high.

e. Receptors in the olfactory epithelium are highly specific.

2. Sensory structures that detect taste are

a. palates.

b. papillae.

c. taste buds.

d. ciliary membranes.

e. thermoreceptors.

3. Some thyroid disorders are characterized by an increase in the width of the palpebral fissure. This would be an increase in the distance between the

a. eyebrows.

b. eyelashes.

c. eyelids.

d. eyes.

e. lacrimal glands.

3. Which of the following cranial nerves innervates an eye muscle?

a. optic

b. facial

c. abducens

d. trigeminal

e. vagus

4. Blood vessels enter the eye and nerve processes exit the eye at the

a. optic disc.

b. macula lutea.

c. sensory retina.

d. fovea centralis.

e. pupil.

5. For distant vision,

a. the lens is more spherical.

b. the suspensory ligaments relax.

c. the ciliary muscles are relaxed.

d. light is refracted more by the lens than by the humors.

e. the lens is thickened.

6. When rhodopsin is exposed to light,

a. more rhodopsin is formed.

b. retinal separates from opsin.

c. the cones generate action potentials.

d. free retinal is converted to vitamin A.

e. retinal becomes more attached to opsin.

7. A person loses all vision in their left eye. One possible cause could be damage to the

a. optic chiasma.

b. left optic tract.

c. optic nerve in the left eye.

d. right lateral geniculate nucleus.

e. right visual cortex in the occipital lobe.

8. Damage to the vestibulocochlear nerve would result in some loss of

a. hearing and balance.

b. hearing and taste.

c. smell.

d. taste.

e. hearing and sight.

8. Olfaction is the sense of smell. What does “A” represent?

a. olfactory bulb

b. cilia (olfactory hairs)

c. olfactory neuron

d. axon of olfactory neuron

e. olfactory tract

Chapter 16 Autonomic Nervous System

9. If a somatic sensory neuron is impaired, which of the following is most likely to occur?

a. loss of muscle tone

b. loss of proprioception

c. paralysis

d. death

e. tetanus

10. Chain ganglia are part of the

a. central nervous system.

b. sympathetic branch of the ANS.

c. somatic motor branch of the ANS.

d. parasympathetic branch of the ANS.

e. spinal cord.

 

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Which physician practice model is most closely related to the combination of physician shortages, growth in the number of partially retired physicians, lifestyle considerations, and the increased number of female physicians? a. Solo practice physicians b. Physician managers c. Locum Tenens physicians d. General practitioners as the only physicians in small rural communities

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QUESTION 18

True or False: Intrinsic rewards are tangible and include salary, benefits, and time off.

a. True

b. False

0.5 points

QUESTION 19

Which physician practice model is most closely related to the combination of physician shortages, growth in the number of partially retired physicians, lifestyle considerations, and the increased number of female physicians?

a. Solo practice physicians

b. Physician managers

c. Locum Tenens physicians

d. General practitioners as the only physicians in small rural communities

QUESTION 20

True or False: According to the World Health Organization, adapting a existing facility to improve its chances for survival is more expensive than building a new facility.

a. True

b. False

QUESTION 21

During a strike

a. it is illegal for employees to hold union meetings

b. it is illegal for management to hire replacement workers

c. it is illegal for management or labor to change their bargaining position

d. it is legal for employers to hire replacement workers

QUESTION 22

Which of the following is not considered a mandatory employment benefit?

a. Unemployment compensation

b. Sick leave

c. Social Security

d. Worker’s compensation

QUESTION 23

The management of a health center has decided to implement a compensation system that rewards employees when the organization achieves improvements in efficiency, productivity, and cost savings. Which of the following best fits this approach to compensation?

a. Profit-sharing plans

b. Gain-sharing plans

c. Piece-rate incentives

d. A bonus system paid out annually

0.5 points

QUESTION 24

RsQ_022Which of the following is a potential outcome of physician practice under a capitation arrangement?

a. Physicians will provide too many diagnostic tests.

b. Physicians will provide too many unnecessary procedures.

c. Physicians will provide too few diagnostic tests.

d. Both a and b

e. All of the above

QUESTION 25

True or False: Mutual patient referrals benefit US health systems because foreign healthcare institutions refer patients to the United States and vice versa.

a. True

b. False

QUESTION 26

Broadbanding enables

a. managers to pay employees on the basis of employee characteristics and performance

b. greater decentralization of decisions about salaries

c. managers to more easily change an individual’s compensation

d. all of the above

QUESTION 27

True or False: A disaster may have no physical effect on a hospital but still limit the hospital’s ability to operate.

a. True

b. False

QUESTION 28

In job evaluation, a benchmark job is

a. a well-understood job that requires relatively stable knowledge, skills, and abilities

b. a relatively new job in an organization for which the requisite knowledge, skills, and abilities are not entirely clear

c. any job in an organization that can form the basis for ranking other jobs

d. a job that no longer exists in an organization but that can be used to evaluate the value of other jobs

QUESTION 29

A hospital that has planned for alternative sources of power and water in the event of a disaster is participating in

a. business continuity planning

b. a simulation of a disaster

c. a FEMA requirement

d. a legal requirement of the city or county government

e. none of the above

QUESTION 30

The most effective way to prevent unionization is to screen out potential union organizers during the hiring process.

a. True

b. False

QUESTION 31

The percentage of employers providing benefits for domestic partners in 2005 was??

a. 13 percent

b. 15 percent

c. 19 percent

d. none of the above

QUESTION 32

True or False: Because of a shortage of inspectors, OSHA reviews organizations only after an incident has occurred.

a. True

b. False

QUESTION 33

Which of the following is the Internet-based system through which managers can access employee records for administrative purposes and employees can change personal information or benefit elections?

a. Employee benefit hotline

b. HR self-service

c. HR kiosk center

d. HR office lobby computer

QUESTION 34

True or False: According to equity theory, an operating room nurse is likely to compare himself to operating room nurses in the same hospital.

a. True

b. False

QUESTION 35

The primary purpose of the Taft-Hartley Act was to protect employees from abusive employers.

a. True

b. False

QUESTION 36

Which of the following is most likely to be a sign of workers’ desire to unionize?

a. Absenteeism

b. Increasing benefits offered to employees

c. Poor economic conditions

d. Hiring managers from within the organization

QUESTION 37

In conducting job hazard analysis, jobs with the potential to cause severe or disabling injuries??

a. should not receive high priority if there is no history of previous accidents

b. should receive high priority even if there is no history of previous accidents

c. should receive high priority after a period of study to determine how many accidents occur

d. should receive high priority only if the workers doing the job are unskilled workers

QUESTION 38

On a five-point rating form, a manager is asked to respond to the following question: “How flexible is this person?” This question is likely part of which type of performance management process?

a. Management by objectives

b. Graphic rating scale

c. anchored rating scale

d. Forced Ranking

QUESTION 39

Which of the following is not a characteristic of management by objectives?

a. It establishes specific and measurable goals.

b. It involves setting goals with employee input.

c. It is an opportunity to provide objective feedback to employees.

d. The method is robust and equally applicable to all types of jobs.

QUESTION 40

Which category(ies) of retirement plan allow(s) employees to access the balance in their accounts?

a. Defined contribution only

b. Hybrid only

c. Defined contribution and hybrid

d. None of the above

QUESTION 41

The National Labor Relations Act

a. is the legal framework for labor relations in the United States

b. allows public hospital employees to unionize

c. gave states the right to enact right-to-work laws

d. explicitly made unionization illegal

QUESTION 42

The Social Security Act of 1934 provided American citizens with

a. social welfare benefits

b. sick leave pools and paid time off

c. retirement income protection

d. health insurance

QUESTION 43

The most predictable change in the demographics of US citizens is

a. disease incidence among the population

b. aging among the population

c. education level among the population

d. specialization among the population

QUESTION 44

True or False: Periodic performance appraisals should never be used to make personnel decisions.

a. True

b. False

QUESTION 45

The 1974 Health Care Amendments?

a. made it illegal for healthcare employees to strike

b. made it legal for employers to fire employees who are union organizers

c. made it illegal for healthcare employees to picket in front of healthcare organizations

d. extended union representation rights to healthcare workers

QUESTION 46

True or False: Surge capability is likely to be more of a concern for a hospital after a hurricane.

a. True

b. False

QUESTION 47

Total compensation is the value of the employee’s base salary less the value of the benefits package.

a. True

b. False

QUESTION 48

Subordinate appraisal is most useful for

a. evaluating the quality of performance data

b. learning about how peers perceive one’s performance

c. organizations in which there aren’t many managers

d. identifying managers’ blind spots

QUESTION 49

A hospital safety program may be evaluated by which of the following measures

a. Improvement in morale

b. Growth in productivity

c. Reduced levels of absenteeism

d. All of the above

QUESTION 50

True or False: Because employee performance is so important to organizations, senior management consistently supports performance management procedures.

a. True

b. False

 

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QUESTION 1 Which type of life insurance accrues a cash value over time? a. Permanent b. Term c. Variable d. Split dollar

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Question

QUESTION 1

Which type of life insurance accrues a cash value over time?

a. Permanent

b. Term

c. Variable

d. Split dollar

QUESTION 2

Which of the following is not an example of a rating error in performance management?

a. Forced ranking

b. Halo effect

c. central tendency

d. Contrast effect

QUESTION 3

True or False: The performance management process has little impact on training in organizations.

a. True

b. False

QUESTION 4

According to Bokhour and colleagues (2006), which of the following is not true about physician attitudes toward pay-for-quality performance programs

a. Physicians are concerned that some quality measures are outside their scope of control.

b. Physicians are more motivated by productivity-oriented incentives than by quality-oriented incentives.

c. Physicians believe that recorded data are often inaccurate.

d. The method of reward distribution affects the reward’s power to motivate change.

QUESTION 5

A health system is building a new service line and must recruit applicants with a specialized and scarce skill set. Which compensation strategy would be most appropriate for this health system to ensure competent staffing of this service line?

a. A second-quartile compensation strategy

b. A third-quartile compensation strateg

c. A first-quartile compensation strategy

d. Either a first- or second-quartile compensation strategy

QUESTION 6

The closed shop describes a situation in which?

a. no employee is required to join a union as a condition of employment

b. an employee is required to join a union after starting work

c. an employer is permitted to hire only union members

d. it is illegal for nonemployees to enter a place of employment

QUESTION 7

All of the following are putting pressure on healthcare organizations to lower costs except

a. managed care

b. employees

c. healthcare management faculty

d. government insurance programs

e. All are putting pressure on healthcare organizations to lower costs

QUESTION 8

Which of the following are covered by ERISA?

a. Nongovernmental agencies

b. Federal agencies

c. State agencies

d. Both b and c

QUESTION 9

Increasing healthcare costs do all of the following to the US economy except

a. increase productivity and morale

b. stifle economic growth

c. increase tension between employers and employees

d. fuel strike actions

QUESTION 10

Point systems of job evaluation focus exclusively on the age and experience of the person holding the job.

a. True

b. False

QUESTION 11

Which type of retirement plan allows employees to contribute to their own retirement?

Nonqualified retirement plan

b. Defined contribution plan

c. Defined benefit plan

d. tax – deferred plan

QUESTION 12

True or False: “Disaster plan” is another term for “disaster planning.”

a. True

b. False

QUESTION 13

Which of the following disaster levels characterizes a catastrophic event?

a. Level 1

b. Level II

c. Level III

d. Level IV

QUESTION 14

A sudden surge in demand for hospital services is most likely to result from which of the following?

a. A hazardous material spill on a local country road

b. A drought

c. A school bus accident

d. An electricity blackout

QUESTION 15

True or False: Burnout in certain industries leads to an increased demand for a better work-life balance.

a. True

b. False

QUESTION 16

A disaster operations plan should include all of the following except??

a. cancellation of employee vacation time

b. communications

c. recovery and restoration

d. property protection

QUESTION 17

True or False: Six Sigma emphasizes the use of anecdotal analysis.

a. True

b. False

0.5 points

 

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Research a capital purchase, costing more than $5,000, which your company could benefit from. Examples include a new X-ray machine, a Magnetic Resonance Image (MRI) processor, software for filing patient records, a research library, or any large item that your company might use.

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Write a 3,000- to 3,500-word paper in which you complete the following:

·         Research a capital purchase, costing more than $5,000, which your company could benefit from. Examples include a new X-ray machine, a Magnetic Resonance Image (MRI) processor, software for filing patient records, a research library, or any large item that your company might use.

·         Identify the management goals that expenditure would support. Management goals might include revenue, improvement, productivity, quality assurance, employee development, or management services consultant packages.

·         Explain how the item could enhance the economic environment of the organization.

·         Identify the organizational goals the expenditure would support. Goals might include patient care, medical and allied health education, community service, cost containment, leadership role, and clinical research.

·         Explain how the expenditure would relate to the needs of the organization. Explain how it would be beneficial to the organization.

·         Justify the expense to the organization. Relate the reasons to the hospital goals, including departmental and management goals, and how the acquisition would be beneficial

 

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Students are expected to have completed the assigned readings each week– and be prepared to comment critically. Rather than providing mere summaries of course readings, students will be asked to analyze and synthesize information from the assigned readings while reflecting on their own lived experiences using personal examples, situations they observe in organizations and within their communities, and current events.

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1 PAGE SINGLE SPACE

Students are expected to have completed the assigned readings each week– and be prepared to comment critically. Rather than providing mere summaries of course readings, students will be asked to analyze and synthesize information from the assigned readings while reflecting on their own lived experiences using personal examples, situations they observe in organizations and within their communities, and current events.

 

CHAPTER 13,14,15,16

 

Note: It is imperative that you explicitly reference the chapter(s) on which you will reflect. This should be made explicit early on in your reflection paper. Provide direction for the reader. Also, you cannot simply reference “Comeaux” for your within text citations. This approach is not correct. I am the book editor, but I am not the contributing author for all chapters in the book. Please include the proper within text citation, identifying the appropriate contributing author(s) for the selected chapter(s). Lastly, you do not have to reflect on all of the assigned weekly readings (optional). Instead, you can reflect on one or more of the readings for the week.

 

SAME FORMAT READING NOTES AS THE PREVIOUS ONE, USE INTRODUCTION OFINTERCOLLEGIATE ATHELTE BOOK

 

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What does it mean? What is your interpretation of work? Do you think the work has a social message? Do you see any political or religious ideas expressed in the work? Explain

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Need to anwser these questions. one parapgraph. on this painting A Sunday on La Grande Jatte by Georges Seurat.

What does it mean? What is your interpretation of work? Do you think the work has a social message? Do you see any political or religious ideas expressed in the work? Explain

List and identify symbols in the painting?

 

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Discuss “public sphere” as defined and analyzed by Habermas in Habermas, Jürgen. “The Public Sphere: An Encyclopedia Article.” New German Critique, no. 3 (Autumn, 1974): 49-55.

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Mid-Term Exam

First Question

From class discussions and the reading material, answer only ONE question of the following questions. Write your answer in about 1500 words. Use double space, please!

  1. •       Discuss “public sphere” as defined and analyzed by Habermas in Habermas, Jürgen. “The Public Sphere: An Encyclopedia Article.” New German Critique, no. 3 (Autumn, 1974): 49-55.
  2. •       Discuss reasons of success and failure of the Industrial Workers’ Movement in US as presented in Poor People’s Movements: Why They Succeed; How They Fail, Frances Fox Piven and Richard A. Cloward, 96-180. New York: Vintage Books, 1979.
  3. •       Discuss Nancy Fraser’s critique of Habermas’ concept of “public sphere” as explained in Fraser, Nancy. “Rethinking the Public Sphere: A Contribution to the Critique of Actually Existing Democracy.” Social Text, no. 25/26 (1990): 56-80.
  4. •       Explain the classification of collectivities as presented in the classic work of Herbert Blumer in Blumer, Herbert. “Elementary Collective Groupings.” In Social Movements: Perspectives and Issues, edited by Steven M. Buechler and F. Kurt Cylke, Jr., 72-90. California: Mayfield Publishing Company, 1997.
  5. •       Describe the main features of European Autonomous Movements as discussed in Katsiaficas, Georgy. “The (Anti-)Politics of Autonomy.” In The Subversion of Politics: European Autonomous Social Mobements and the Decolonization of Everyday Life, Georgy Katsiaficas, 277-353. Baltimore: AK Press, 2006.

Second Question

Answer only ONE question of the following questions. Use all resources available to research your question, and use class discussions and the reading material to frame your answer. Write your answer in about 1000 words. Use double space, please!

  1. •       Write a short essay on the events and riots in Ferguson in 2014, discussing the arguments on both sides. Explain what you think of this confrontation!
  2. •       Explain why unionized workers are steadily decreasing in number in U.S.
  3. •       Write a short essay reflecting on the debate around AZ SB 1062. Focus, please, on the competition among different social groups and social movements, and their use of different market dynamics, political participatory processes and cultural concepts to support their own positions.
  4. •       Write a short essay on the material published on this website: http://www.textfiles.com/anarchy/

Rememper to cite every thing and it needs to be orginal no copypaste.

 

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