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Mba503 Final Exam

Multiple Choice Questions

 

 1. What is the primary goal of financial management?

 A) Increased earnings

 B) Maximizing cash flow

 C) Maximizing shareholder wealth

 D) Minimizing risk of the firm

 

 Difficulty: Easy   Type: Memorization  

 

 

 2. The partnership form of organization

 A) avoids the double taxation of earnings and dividends found in the corporate form of organization.

 B) usually provides limited liability to the partners.

 C) has unlimited life.

 D) simplifies decision making.

 

 Difficulty: Easy   Type: Memorization  

 

 

 3. Increased productivity due to technology has

 A) increased corporations’ reliance on debt for capital expansion needs.

 B) created larger asset values on the firm’s historical balance sheet.

 C) made it cheaper (in terms of interest costs) for firms to borrow money.

 D) helped to keep corporate costs in check.

 

 Difficulty: Medium   Type: Conceptual  

 

 

 

 4. Insider trading occurs when

 A) someone has information not available to the public which they use to profit from trading in stocks.

 B) corporate officers buy stock in their company.

 C) lawyers, investment bankers, and others buy common stock in companies represented by their firms.

 D) any stock transactions

occur in violation of the Federal Trade Commissions restrictions on monopolies.

 

 Difficulty: Medium   Type: Memorization  

 

 

 

 

 Chapter 2   Review of Accounting

 

 

 

 5. When a firm’s earnings are falling more rapidly than its stock price, its P/E ratio will:

 A) remain the same

 B) go up

 C) go down

 D) could go either up or down

 

Difficulty: Medium   Type: Conceptual  

 

 6. The net worth of a firm

 A) is usually the same as the firm’s market value.

 B) is based on current asset costs.

 C) is based on current liabilities.

 D) none of the above.

 

 Difficulty: Medium   Type: Application  

 

 

 7. A statement of cash flows allows a financial analyst to determine

 A) whether a cash dividend is affordable.

 B) how increases in asset accounts have been financed.

 C) whether long-term assets are being financed with long-term or short-term financing.

 D) all of the above

 

 Difficulty: Medium   Type: Conceptual  

 

 

 8. A firm has $200,000 in current assets, $400,000 in long-term assets, $80,000 in current liabilities, and $200,000 in long-term liabilities.   What is its net working capital?

 A) $120,000

 B) $320,000

 C) $520,000

 D) none of the above

 

Difficulty: Medium   Type: Application  

 

 

 

 Chapter 3   Financial Analysis

 

 

 Multiple Choice Questions

 

 

 

 9. The ______________ method of inventory costing is least likely to lead to inflation-induced profits.

 A) FIFO

 

 B) LIFO

 C) Weighted average

 D) Lower of cost or market

 

Difficulty: Medium   Type: Conceptual  

 

 

 10. The Bubba Corp. had net income before taxes of $200,000 and sales of $2,000,000.   If it is in the 50% tax bracket its after-tax profit margin is:

 A) 5%

 B) 12%

 C) 20%

 D) 25%

 

Difficulty: Medium   Type: Application  

 

 

 11. XYZ’s receivables turnover is 10x.   The accounts receivable at year-end are $600,000.   The average collection period is 90 days (3 months).   What was the sales figure for the year?

 A) $60,000

 B) $6,000,000

 C) $24,000,000

 D) none of the above

 

 Difficulty: Hard   Type: Application  

 

 

 12. A firm has total assets of $2,000,000.   It has $900,000 in long-term debt.   The stockholders equity is $900,000.   What is the total debt to asset ratio?

 A) 45%

 B) 40%

 C) 55%

 D) none of the above

 

 Difficulty: Hard   Type: Application  

 

 

 

 Chapter 4   Financial Forecasting

 

 

 13. Required production during a planning period will depend on the

 A) beginning inventory of products.

 B) sales during the period.

 C) desired level of ending inventory.

 D) all of the above

 

 Difficulty: Medium   Type: Conceptual  

 

 14. XYZ Co. has forecasted June sales of 600 units and July sales of 1000 units.   The company maintains ending inventory equal to 125% of next month’s sales.   June beginning inventory reflects this policy.   What is June’s required production?

 

 A) 1100 units

 B) -0- units

 C) 500 units

 D) 400 units

 

 Difficulty: Medium   Type: Application  

 

 

 15. The difference between total receipts and total payments referred to as

 A) cumulative cash flow.

 B) beginning cash flow.

 C) net cash flow.

 D) cash balance.

 

 Difficulty: Easy   Type: Conceptual  

 

 16. In developing the pro forma income statement we follow four important steps:

 1) compute other expenses,

 2) determine a production schedule,

 3) establish a sales projection,

 4) determine profit by completing the actual pro forma statement.  

 

 What is the correct order for these four steps?

 A) 1,2,3,4

 B) 4,3,2,1

 C) 2,1,3,4

 D) 3,2,1,4

 

 Difficulty: Medium   Type: Conceptual  

 

 Chapter 5   Operating and Financial Leverage

 

 

 17. In break-even analysis the contribution margin is defined as

 A) sales minus variable costs.

 B) sales minus fixed costs.

 C) variable costs minus fixed costs.

 D) fixed costs minus variable costs.

 

 Difficulty: Easy   Type: Memorization  

 

 18. Firm A employs a high degree of operating leverage; Firm B takes a more conservative approach.   Which of the following comparative statements about firms A and B is true?

 A) A has a lower break-even point than B, but A’s profit grows faster after the break-even.

 B) A has a higher break-even point than B, but A’s profit grows slower after the break-even.

 C) B has a lower break-even point than

 A, but A’s profit grows faster after break-even.

 D) B has a lower break-even point than A, and profit grows the same rate for both companies after the breakeven point.

 

Difficulty: Hard   Type: Application  

 

 19. Heavy use of long-term debt may be beneficial in an inflationary economy because

 A) the debt may be repaid in more “expensive” dollars.

 B) nominal interest rates exceed real interest rates.

 C) inflation is associated with the peak of a business cycle.

 D) the debt may be repaid in “cheaper” dollars.

 

 Difficulty: Medium   Type: Conceptual  

 

 20. Under which of the following conditions could the overuse of financial leverage be detrimental to the firm?

 A) Stable industry

 B) Cyclical demand for the firm’s products.

 C) Upswing of business cycle.

 D) Low interest cost compared to return on assets

 

 Difficulty: Medium   Type: Application  

 

 Chapter 6   Working Capital and the Financial Decision

 

 

 21. Risk exposure due to heavy short-term borrowing can be compensated for by

 A) carrying highly liquid assets.

 B) carrying illiquid assets.

 C) carrying longer term, more profitable current assets.

 D) carrying more receivables to increase cash flow.

 

 Difficulty: Medium   Type: Conceptual  

 

 

 22. When actual sales are greater than forecasted sales

 A) inventory will decline.

 B) production schedules might have to be revised upward.

 C) accounts receivable will rise.

 D) all

 of the above

 

 Difficulty: Medium   Type: Application  

 

 

 23. Yield curves change daily to reflect

 A) changing conditions in the money and capital markets.

 B) new inflation expectations.

 C) changing conditions in the overall economy.

 D) all of the above.

 

 Difficulty: Medium   Type: Conceptual  

 

 24. Retail companies like Target and Limited Brands are more likely to have

 A) stable sales and earnings per share.

 B) cyclical sales but less volatile earnings per share.

 C) cyclical sales and more volatile earnings per share.

 D) cyclical sales but stable accounts receivable and inventory.

 

Difficulty: Easy   Type: Conceptual  

 

 

 Chapter 7   Current Asset Management

 

 

 25. When using the economic order quantity model

 A) ordering costs increase as the level of inventory increases.

 B) carrying costs decrease as the level of inventory increases.

 C) costs are minimized when total carrying costs and total ordering costs are equal.

 D) none of the above

 

 Difficulty: Medium   Type: Conceptual  

 

 

 26. Hedging

 A) is a way to protect your accounts receivable position.

 B) increases risk.

 C) is a legal agreement to buy or sell a financial futures contract.

 D) can be carried out with a futures contract.

 

 Difficulty: Medium   Type: Conceptual   

 

 27. Which of the following is not a true statement about commercial paper?

 A) Finance paper is sold directly to the lender

 by the finance company.

 B) Finance paper is also referred to as direct paper.

 C) Dealer paper is sold directly to the lender by a finance company.

 D) Industrial companies, utility firms or finance companies too small to sell direct paper sell dealer paper.

 

 Difficulty: Medium   Type: Memorization  

 

 

 28. Which of the following best describes the benefits to the borrower of selling asset backed securities?

 A) Due to the portfolio effect, the borrower can package up low quality accounts receivable and sell them for a premium price.

 B) The borrower trades future cash flows for current cash flows.

 C) The asset-backed security is likely to carry a high credit rating of AA or better.

 D) b and c are correct.

 

 Difficulty: Easy   Type: Conceptual  

 

 

 

 29. Price Corp. is considering selling to a group of new customers and creating new annual sales of $70,000.   5% will be uncollectible.   The collection cost on these accounts is 3.5% of new sales, the cost of producing and selling is 80% of sales and the firm is in the 31% tax bracket.   What is the profit on new sales?

 A) $5,554.50

 B) $9,660.00

 C) $7,245.00

 D) none of the above.

 

 Difficulty: Hard   Type: Application  

 

 

 Chapter 8   Sources of Short-Term Financing

 

 30. Mr. Jones borrows $2,000 for 90 days and pays $35 interest.   What is his effective rate of interest?

 A) 9.3%

 B) 7.0%

 C) 11.7%

 D) None of the above

 

 Difficulty: Medium   Type:

 Application  

 

 

 31. The prime rate

 A) is the effective rate of interest for banks’ best customers.

 B) has been quite volatile during the past two decades, moving as much as 8 percentage points in a 12-month period.

 C) is usually lower than treasury bill rates.

 D) none of the above

 

 Difficulty: Medium   Type: Memorization  

 

 

 32. Accounts receivable may be used as a source of financing by

 A) pledging the receivables as loan collateral.

 B) factoring the receivables to a finance company.

 C) selling securities backed by the receivables.

 D) all of the above

 

 Difficulty: Medium   Type: Conceptual  

 

 33. The required compensating balance is usually computed as a

 A) percentage of customer loans outstanding.

 B) factor of accounts receivable.

 C) percentage of the bank’s commitments toward future loans.

 D) a and c are correct

 

 Difficulty: Medium   Type: Conceptual  

 

 

 

 Chapter 9   The Time Value of Money

 

 

 34. The concept of time value of money is important to financial decision making because

 A) it emphasizes earning a return on invested capital.

 B) it recognizes that earning a return makes $1 worth more today than $1 received in the future.

 C) it can be applied to future cash flows in order to compare different streams of income.

 D) all of the above

 

 Difficulty: Medium   Type: Conceptual  

 

 

 35. Mr. Nailor invests $5,000 in a certificate of deposit at his local

bank.   He receives annual interest of 8% for 7 years.   How much interest will his investment earn during this time period?

 A) $2,915

 B) $3,570

 C) $6,254

 D) $8,570

 

 Difficulty: Medium   Type: Application  

 

 36. Mr. Fish wants to build a house in 10 years.   He estimates that the total cost will be $170,000.   If he can put aside $10,000 at the end of each year, what rate of return must he earn in order to have the amount needed?

 A) Between 11% and 12%

 B) Between 8% and 9%

 C) 17%

 D) None of the above

 

 Difficulty: Medium   Type: Application  

 

 

 Chapter 10   Valuation and Rates of Return

 

 

 37. A 20-year bond pays 12% on a face value of $1,000.   If similar bonds are currently yielding 9%, What is the market value of the bond?   Use annual analysis.

 A) over $1,000

 B) under $1,000

 C) over $1,200

 D) not enough information given to tell

 

 Difficulty: Easy   Type: Application  

 

 38. An issue of preferred stock is paying an annual dividend of $5.   The growth rate for the firm’s common stock is 14%.   What is the preferred stock price if the required rate of return is 11%?

 A) $45.45

 B) $41.67

 C) $35.71

 D) none of the above

 

 Difficulty: Easy   Type: Application  

 

 39. Which of the following does not influence the yield to maturity for a security?

 A) required real rate of return

 B) risk free rate

 C) business risk

 D) yields of similar securities

 

 Difficulty:

 Medium   Type: Conceptual  

 

 

 40. The cost of common stock is usually greater than the simple dividend yield because

 A) investors perceive risk in common stock.

 B) investors expect both a current dividend and future growth.

 C) dividends are not tax-deductible.

 D) the company must make profits before it can pay dividends.

 

 Difficulty: Easy   Type: Memorization  

 

 

 41. The dividend valuation model stresses the

 A) importance of earnings per share.

 B) importance of dividends and legal rules for maximum payment.

 C) relationship of dividends to market prices.

 D) relationship of dividends to earnings per share.

 

 Difficulty: Easy   Type: Memorization  

 

 

 Chapter 11   Cost of Capital

 

 

 42. Although debt financing is usually the cheapest component of capital, it cannot be used to excess because

 A) interest rates may change.

 B) the firm’s stock price will increase and raise the cost of equity financing.

 C) the financial risk of the firm may increase and thus drive up the cost of all sources of financing.

 D) underwriting costs may change.

 

 Difficulty: Medium   Type: Conceptual  

 

 

 43. Each project should be judged against

 A) the specific means of financing used to support its implementation.

 B) the going interest rate at that point in time.

 C) the cost of new common stock equity.

 D) none of the above.

 

 Difficulty: Medium   Type: Conceptual  

 

 

 

 44. The cost of debt is

 determined by taking the

 A) present value of the interest payments and principal times one minus the tax rate.

 B) historical yield on bonds times one minus the tax rate

 C) estimated yield on new bond issues of the same risk times one minus the shareholder marginal tax rate.

 D) none of the above

 

 Difficulty: Medium   Type: Conceptual  

 

 45. The pre-tax cost of debt for a new issue of debt is determined by

 A) the investor’s required rate of return on issued stock.

 B) the coupon rate of existing debt.

 C) the yield to maturity of outstanding bonds.

 D) all of the above.

 

 Difficulty: Medium   Type: Conceptual  

 

 

 

 Chapter 14   Capital Markets

 

 

 46. During the next ten years, the major threat to the dominance of the U.S. money and capital markets will come from

 A) Russia’s difficulty in transforming its economy into a capitalistic one.

 B) Japan’s prolonged recession and banking crisis.

 C) The Euro-zone countries comprising the European Monetary Union and a single currency.

 D) The huge Chinese economy and its billion plus people.

 

 Difficulty: Medium   Type: Conceptual  

 

 47. With respect to the United States and its relationship with the rest of the world, it can be said that

 A) the U.S. has invested more dollars in the rest of the world than foreign countries have invested in the U.S.

 B) the U.S. has actively helped foreign countries finance the government deficits.

 C) foreign investors hold

 large positions in U.S. government securities.

 D) All of the above.

 

 Difficulty: Medium   Type: Memorization  

 

 

 48. Financial instruments in the capital markets generally fall under what category in the Balance Sheet?

 A) Short-term liabilities and equities.

 B) Long-term liabilities and equities.

 C) Near cash assets.

 D) None of the above.

 

Difficulty: Easy   Type: Conceptual  

 

 

 Chapter 16   Long-Term Debt and Lease Financing

 

 

 49. With regard to interest rates and bond prices it can be said that

 A) a 1% change in interest rates will cause a greater change in long-term bond prices than short-term prices.

 B) a 1% change in interest rates will cause a greater change in short-term bond prices than long-term prices.

 C) long-term rates are more volatile than short-term rates.

 D) a decrease in interest rates will cause bond prices to fall.

 

 Difficulty: Medium   Type: Conceptual  

 

 50. Which one of these conditions must be met for a lease to qualify as a capital lease?

 A) The lease contains a bargain purchase price at the end of the lease.

 B) The lease must have a value of at least $10 million.

 C) The lease must have a life of 10 years.

 D) All of the above.

 

 Difficulty: Medium   Type: Memorization  

 

 

 Chapter 17   Common and Preferred Stock Financing

 

 

 51. Which of the following is not a true statement?

 A) Common stockholders have a residual claim to income.

 B) Bondholders

 may force a corporation into bankruptcy for failure to make interest payments.

 C) Common stockholders are legally entitled to some dividend.

 D) A minority interest can still elect members to the Board of Directors under cumulative voting even though someone else owns 51% of the stock.

 

Difficulty: Medium   Type: Memorization  

 

 

 52. Kuhns Corp. has 200,000 shares of preferred stock outstanding that is cumulative.   The dividend is $6.50 per share and has not been paid for 3 years.   If Kuhns earned $3 million this year, what could be the maximum payment to the preferred stockholders on a per share basis?

 A) $19.50 per share

 B) $15.00 per share

 C) $13.00 per share

 D) $6.50 per share

 

 Difficulty: Easy   Type: Application  

 

 53. When comparing common stock of the same company it is fair to say that

 A) all shares, no matter how many classes, are all created with the same equal rights.

 B) companies sometimes have two different classes of shares with unequal rights to dividends and votes.

 C) the Securities and Exchange Commission allows only one class of common stock.

 D) investors are indifferent between class A and class B shares.

 

Difficulty: Easy   Type: Memorization  

 

 

 

 54. Dr. J. wants to buy an IBM personal computer which will cost $2,788 four years from today.   He would like to set aside an equal amount at the end of each year in order to accumulate the amount needed. He can earn 7% annual return.

   How much should he set aside?

 A) $697.00

 B) $627.93

 C) $823.15

 D) $531.81

 

 Difficulty: Medium   Type: Application  

 

 

 Problems to be solved-Chapter 2

 

 

 55. The following is the December 31, 2003 balance sheet for the Epics Corporation.

 

 Assets Liabilities

 Cash $     70,000 Accounts Payable $   100,000

 Accounts Receivable 150,000 Notes Payable 120,000

 Inventory     280,000 Bonds Payable     300,000

 Total Current Assets $   500,000 Total Liabilities $   520,000

 Plant and Equipment $1,250,000 Equity

 Less: Accum. Deprec.     250,000 Common Stock 300,000

 Net plant and Equipment $1,000,000 Paid In Capital 200,000

 Retained Earnings     480,000

 Total Assets $1,500,000 Total Equity $   980,000

 Total Liab. & Equity $1,500,000

 

 Sales for 2003 were $2,000,000, with the cost of goods sold being 55% of sales.   Depreciation expense was 10% of the gross plant and equipment at the beginning of the year.   Interest expense was 9% on the notes payable and 11% on the bonds payable.   Selling and administrative expenses were $200,000 and the firm’s tax rate is 40%.

 

 Prepare an income statement.

 

 Difficulty: Medium  

 Answer:

 

 

 

 

 

 56. Given the financial information for the A.E. Neuman Corporation,

 

 a) Prepare a Statement of Cash Flows for the year ended December 31, 2002.

 b) What is the dividend payout ratio for 2003?

 c) If we increased the dividend payout ratio to 100%, what would happen to retained earnings?

 

 

 

 

 

 Difficulty: Medium to Hard  

 

 Answer:

 

 

 

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Econ 300 (money and banking) please contact me via message I am not able to chat using I pad. It’s 50 question similar to the one below

 

Question 1

/ 2 pts

Menu costs of inflation are costs arising from<br>

Menu costs of inflation are costs arising from

the failure to fully index the tax system for inflation.

 

 

 
Correct!

the need for firms to change prices during times of inflation.

 

 

 

attempts by households and firms to avoid paying an inflation tax on money balances.

 

 

 

high nominal interest rates.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Question 2

/ 2 pts

Expansionary shifts of the aggregate demand curve<br>

Expansionary shifts of the aggregate demand curve
Correct!

can originate in either the assets market or the goods market.

 

 

 

cannot originate in either the assets market or the goods market.

 

 

 

can originate in the goods market, but not the assets market.

 

 

 

can originate in the assets market, but not the goods market.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Question 3

/ 2 pts

Despite its costs, governments typically resist eliminating inflation because<br>

Despite its costs, governments typically resist eliminating inflation because

the increase in menu costs because of inflation increases the governments’ tax revenues.

 

 

 
Correct!

doing so would result in lost output and jobs when the economy is near full employment.

 

 

 

governments lack the knowledge of how to eliminate inflation.

 

 

 

as net lenders, governments benefit from inflation.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Question 4

/ 2 pts

According to new Keynesians, which of the following is NOT an important source of price stickiness?<br>

According to new Keynesians, which of the following is NOT an important source of price stickiness?

Long-term nominal wage contracts

 

 

 
You Answered

Imperfect competition among sellers in the goods market

 

 

 

Long-term nominal price contracts

 

 

 
Correct Answer

Government wage and price controls

 

 

 

 

 

 

Question 5

/ 2 pts

In the quantity theory of money demand,<br>

In the quantity theory of money demand,

the demand for real balances is determined by the price level.

 

 

 
You Answered

velocity is assumed to vary with the price level.

 

 

 

the price level is assumed to be constant.

 

 

 
Correct Answer

velocity is assumed to be constant.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Question 6

/ 2 pts

Which of the following best describes a price taker?<br>

Which of the following best describes a price taker?

Firms taking the aggregate price level as given

 

 

 

Prices being set by long-term contracts

 

 

 

Price strategies found in monopolistically competitive markets

 

 

 
Correct!

A firm taking the market price as given

 

 

 

 

 

 

Question 7

/ 2 pts

Milton Friedman and Anna Schwartz found in their study of money and business cycles from the Civil War to 1960 that<br>

Milton Friedman and Anna Schwartz found in their study of money and business cycles from the Civil War to 1960 that

there is no consistent relationship between money and output over the business cycle.

 

 

 

the growth rate of the money supply rises before output declines in every business cycle.

 

 

 

the growth rate of the money supply falls before output declines during some business cycles and rises before output declines during other business cycles.

 

 
Correct!

the growth rate of the money supply falls before output declines in every business cycle.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Question 8

/ 2 pts

Demand-pull inflation results from<br>

Demand-pull inflation results from
Correct!

policymakers’ attempts to increase aggregate demand for current output above the full-employment level.

 

 

 

attempts by financial markets to deal with bracket creep.

 

 

 

attempts by the public to receive higher after-tax returns on their savings.

 

 

 

workers’ pressure for higher wages.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Question 9

/ 2 pts

Attempts by policymakers to keep the rate of unemployment below the natural rate of unemployment for a sustained period of time will result in<br>

Attempts by policymakers to keep the rate of unemployment below the natural rate of unemployment for a sustained period of time will result in

a recession.

 

 

 
Correct Answer

demand-pull inflation.

 

 

 

a shift of the 
LRAS curve to the left.

 

 
You Answered

permanently higher levels of output.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Question 10

/ 2 pts

The Federal Reserve pursued an expansionary monetary policy during 1964 in order to<br>

The Federal Reserve pursued an expansionary monetary policy during 1964 in order to

counteract the effects of a deep cut in federal income taxes.

 

 

 
Correct Answer

keep interest rates from rising.

 

 

 
You Answered

pull the United States out of a deep recession.

 

 

 

bring down the inflation rate.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Question 11

/ 2 pts

According to the Ricardian equivalence proposition,<br>

According to the Ricardian equivalence proposition,

a decline in the demand for money results in an equivalent increase in the demand for nonmoney assets.

 

 

 

saving equals investment only at full employment.

 

 

 
Correct!

the increase in current income from a tax cut is offset by higher taxes in the future to pay off the debt.

 

 

 

government spending is the equivalent of investment spending.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Question 12

/ 2 pts

New Keynesian and new classical economists agree that<br>

New Keynesian and new classical economists agree that

production beyond the full-employment level of output is impossible, even in the short run.

 

 

 

the 
LRAS curve slopes up.

 

 

in the long run the inflation rate must be zero.

 

 

 
Correct!

policymakers cannot permanently maintain the unemployment rate below the natural rate.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Question 13

/ 2 pts

Long-term inflation is principally<br>

Long-term inflation is principally
You Answered

the result of chronic federal budget deficits.

 

 

 
Correct Answer

a monetary phenomenon.

 

 

 

the result of the slowdown in the growth rate of aggregate supply since 1973.

 

 

 

caused by excess wage demands by unionized workers.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Question 14

/ 2 pts

Real business cycle analysis differs from both the new classical and the new Keynesian analyses in holding that<br>

Real business cycle analysis differs from both the new classical and the new Keynesian analyses in holding that

changes in aggregate demand can affect output in the long run.

 

 

 

money is neutral in the long run, but not in the short run.

 

 

 
Correct!

the aggregate supply curve is vertical even in the short run.

 

 

 

prices are sticky in the short run.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Question 15

/ 2 pts

A decrease in the willingness or ability of banks to lend has a significant impact on the economy because<br>

A decrease in the willingness or ability of banks to lend has a significant impact on the economy because
Correct Answer

some borrowers from banks are unable to borrow from nonmoney markets.

 

 

 
You Answered

it causes the short-run aggregate supply curve to shift to the left.

 

 

 

bank profits decline and employment in the banking sector contracts.

 

 

 

it causes the short-run aggregate supply curve to shift to the right.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Question 16

/ 2 pts

Which of the following central banks continues to emphasize the growth of the money

 

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1. Bouncing into the room, she lit up the vicinity with a joyous glow on her face as she told…

1. Bouncing into the room, she lit up the vicinity with a joyous glow on her face as she told about her fiancé and their wedding plans. 2. She huddled in the corner, clutching her tattered blanket and shaking convulsively, as she feverishly searched the room for the unknown dangers that awaited her. I need mood tone and context. Clues
 

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Organizational Control Process

Analyze the four steps of the control process and explain how each step contributes to the control function. Describe the three types of controls. How can the effectiveness of controls be assessed in an organization.

 

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Write a 700 words body only …No intro or conclusion just the Body on Human relations movement Theory and “Also be sure to touch on what a theory is and why we use them” –

I need this done by Noon ( eastern time) in times roman 12 APA style double space . PLAGIARISM free and 2 to 3 peer reviewed references

 

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Accounting Assignment 2 – Tax Deductible Losses

Wikipedia and other Websites do notqualify as academic resources.  Only professional websites can be used along with ebooks, library, etc.

 

Below are a few good websites:

 

www.IRS.gov

http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/26/165

https://turbotax.intuit.com/tax-tools/tax-tips/Tax-Deductions-and-Credits/About-Casualty-Deduction-for-Federal-Income-Tax/INF14772.html

http://www.aicpa.org/InterestAreas/Tax/Resources/Individual/ToolsandAids/DownloadableDocuments/Casualty_Guide__June2012.pdf

http://www.forbes.com/sites/kellyphillipserb/2012/03/05/taxes-from-a-to-z-c-is-for-capital-losses/

 

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assingment

For Kim woods

 

Hey can you assist me with this assisgnent for $ 15, i need it by monday night bc its due tues morning

Assignment 1:Whistleblowingand theSarbanes-Oxley Act

Due end of Week 3, January 24 by 9am and worth 100 points

Use the Internet or Strayer Library to research instances ofwhistleblowingin publicly traded companies within the last 3 years.

Write a two to three (2-3) page paper in which you:

Describe the key characteristics of awhistleblower, and briefly summarize one (1) researched instance ofwhistleblowingin one (1) publicly traded company within the last 3 years. Include the details of the issue that thewhistleblowerreported and the effect of thewhistleblower’sactions on both thewhistleblowerhimself and the company.

Decide whether or not thewhistleblowerwas justified in reporting the company’s actions. Provide a rationale for your response.

Examine the extent to which thewhistleblowerwould be protected, or not protected, under theSarbanes-OxleyAct. Justify your response either way and explain and identify SOX and its application.

Use at least two (2) quality resources in this assignment. Note:Wikipediais not an acceptable reference and proprietary Websites do not qualify as academic resources.

Your assignmentmustfollow these formatting requirements (please see the Attachment with APA rules):

Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format.

Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in

the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

Determine the underlying causes for passage of theSarbanes-OxleyAct and determine protections afforded towhistleblowers.

Use technology and information resources to research issues in law, ethics, and corporate governance.

Write clearly and concisely about law, ethics, and corporate governance using proper writing mechanics.

Grading for this assignment will be based on answer quality, logic / organization of the paper, and language and writing skills, using the following rubric.

 

Points: 100

Assignment 1: Whistleblowing and Sarbanes-Oxley

Criteria

Unacceptable

Below 70% F

Fair

70-79% C

Proficient

80-89% B

Exemplary

90-100% A

1.Describe the key characteristics of a whistleblower. Briefly summarize one (1) researched instance of whistleblowing in one (1) publicly traded company within the last 3 years. Include the details of the issue that the whistleblower reported and the effect of the whistleblower’s actions on both the whistleblower himself and the company.

Weight: 15%

Did not submit or incompletely described thekey characteristicsof a whistleblower. Did not submit or incompletely summarized briefly one (1) researched instance of whistleblowing in one (1) publicly traded company within the last 3 years. Did not submit or incompletely included the details of the issue that the whistleblower reported and the effect of the whistleblower’s actions on both the whistleblower himself and the company.

 

Partially described thekey characteristicsof a whistleblower. Partially summarized briefly one (1) researched instance of whistleblowing in one (1) publicly traded company within the last 3 years. Partially included the details of the issue that the whistleblower reported and the effect of the whistleblower’s actions on both the whistleblower himself and the company.

Satisfactorily described thekey characteristicsof a whistleblower. Satisfactorily summarized briefly one (1) researched instance of whistleblowing in one (1) publicly traded company within the last 3 years. Satisfactorily included the details of the issue that the whistleblower reported and the effect of the whistleblower’s actions on both the whistleblower himself and the company.

Thoroughly described thekey characteristicsof a whistleblower. Thoroughly summarized briefly one (1) researched instance of whistleblowing in one (1) publicly traded company within the last 3 years. Thoroughly included the details of the issue that the whistleblower reported and the effect of the whistleblower’s actions on both the whistleblower himself and the company.

2. Decide whether or not the whistleblower was justified in reporting the company’s actions. Provide a rationale for your response.

Weight: 35%

Did not submit or incompletely decided whether or not the whistleblower was justified in reporting the company’s actions. Did not submit or incompletely provided a rationale for your response.

Partially decided whether or not the whistleblower was justified in reporting the company’s actions. Partially provided a rationale for your response.

Satisfactorily decided whether or not the whistleblower was justified in reporting the company’s actions. Satisfactorily provided a rationale for your response.

Thoroughly decided whether or not the whistleblower was justified in reporting the company’s actions. Thoroughly provided a rationale for your response.

3.  Examine the extent to which the whistleblower would be protected under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act. Justify your response.

Weight: 35%

Did not submit or incompletely examined the extent to which the whistleblower would be protected under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act. Did not submit or incompletely justified your response.

Partially examined the extent to which the whistleblower would be protected under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act. Partially justified your response.

Satisfactorily examined the extent to which the whistleblower would be protected under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act. Satisfactorily justified your response.

Thoroughly examined the extent to which the whistleblower would be protected under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act. Thoroughly justified your response.

4. 2 references

Weight: 5%

No references provided

Does not meet the required number of references; some or

Meets number of required references; all references high

Exceeds number of required references; all references high

 

   

all references poor quality choices.

quality choices.

quality choices.

5. Clarity, writing mechanics, and formatting requirements

Weight: 10%

More than 6 errors present

5-6 errors present

3-4 errors present

0-2 errors present

 

 

 

 

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Chemistry assignment ( HOMEWORK + QUIZ )

due in 4 hours 

 

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